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绝密★考试结束前
2025 学年第一学期丽水发展共同体期中联考
高二年级英语学科试题
考生须知：
1.本卷共8页满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号并填涂相应数字。
3.所有答案必须写在答题纸上，写在试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，只需上交答题纸。
选择题部分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What stopped Helen from opening a restaurant downtown?
A. The high costs. B. The intense competition. C. The limited parking space.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What do we know about the woman?
A. She has been promoted.
B. She will leave the company.
C. She will move out of the finance office.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Why hasn’t Jim bought a dining table yet?
A. He is short of money.
B. He doesn’t need to buy one.
C. He is unsure about the style.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Which bus will the woman get on?
A. The 5:30 one. B. The 6:00 one. C. The 6:30 one.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the relationship between the speakers?A. Husband and wife. B. Schoolmates. C. Colleagues.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中A、B、C所给的三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. What does the man want to do?
A. Study Education. B. Change schools. C. Find a job.
7. What should the man do before registering?
A. Fill out some forms. B. Meet the woman. C. Collect information about USU.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A film. B. A party. C. A concert.
9. What did the man try to do during the event?
A. Have a dance. B. See more clearly. C. Get a better seat.
10. How did the man react to the hot environment?
A. He didn’t mind it. B. He felt a little annoyed. C. He considered it a major problem.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. Why didn’t the woman learn driving?
A. She couldn’t spare the time on weekdays.
B. She was afraid of driving in urban areas.
C. She lives far from driving schools.
12. What does the woman think of the man’s driving teacher?
A. Strict. B. Responsible. C. Flexible.
13. Who will the woman call later?
A. The man’s mother. B. Daniel Smith. C. Alan Suckliff.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
14. Where is the woman?
A. In Perth. B. In Sydney. C. In New York.15. When can the man’s conference be held?
A. From January 21st to 22nd.
B. From January 28th to 29th.
C. From February 4th to 5th.
16. How many people can the Tesla room hold at most?
A. 50. B. 60. C. 100.
17. What does the man request at last?
A. Internet access. B. A projector. C. Microphones.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
18. What will the listeners do next week?
A. Visit a museum. B. Work at a museum. C. Attend a lecture.
19. Which door leads to Gallery 1?
A. The one behind the reception desk.
.
B The one behind a statue of a horse.
C. The one behind a big donation box.
20. How does the speaker suggest having lunch?
A. Take their own lunch. B. Order lunch at the cafe. C. Make sandwiches in the kitchen.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卷上将该
项涂黑。
A
The Happiful Poetry Prize 2026
Our annual poetry competition celebrating the best of mental health writing is back. Seasoned professional or
fresh newbie, wherever you are in your writing journey, you are personally invited to enter the The Happiful Poetry
Prize 2026.
We are looking for poems to explore the topic of mental health and well-being in unique, engaging, and
empowering ways. The competition is free to enter, and no prior experience is necessary; the only thing you need is
a passion for writing!
The winner will receive £100, and four shortlisted poets will receive a £25 National Book Token. All five
poems will be published in issue 108 of Happiful.
Please submit:·One entry per person, of a poem no more than 25 lines long.
·Your poem’s title.
·Your full name and address.
·A short biography, no more than 50 words long.
To enter, visit happiful.com/poetry-prize
The deadline for entries is midday on Friday 14 November 2025. All poets will be contacted with the results
by the end of February, 2026. GOOD LUCK.
21. Which is the topic of this annual poetry competition?
A. Individual’s writing journey. B. Mental health and well-being.
C. Engaging and empowering ways. D. Personal life experience.
22. What should you submit if you want to participate in the competition?
A. Two poems no more than 25 lines long. B. A poem without a title.
C. Your occupation and address. D. A self-introduction no more than 50 words long.
23. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To call for people to join in the competition. B. To inspire people’s passion for poems.
C. To introduce a poem event to experienced poets. D. To advertise new poets’ works.
B
Sitting in the garden as the rain fell on Christmas Day in 2023, I felt far from festive. Despite weeks of
planning, the day had been stressful rather than magical.
My sons, Fred, 12, and Arthur, 8, were overwhelmed by the stacks of gifts under the tree, and my husband,
Baz, was stuck building toys and searching for batteries, while I slaved over turkey and the trimmings. When we sat
down to dinner, the children refused to eat most of it, then started arguing. We couldn’t even go for a family walk
because the weather was so miserable and, I hid myself outside for some peace, my thoughts turned to loved ones
lost over the years. “I am not doing this again,” I told my husband that evening. “Christmas is supposed to be fun.”
Within days, I’d found a solution. Instead of our traditional Christmas at home or with our extended families,
I’d booked a holiday park for the following year. We would pay for it by decreasing the numbers of gifts and when
we explained to the children that Santa would only be able to deliver a stocking and one large present, they were so
thrilled about the holiday to mind. It was the right decision because Christmas 2024 was the best one we could
remember. And beforehand, all I had to do was packing the suitcase and buying a few necessities.
We spent Christmas Day at the pool for bowling, and dined at an Italian restaurant. The boys were so excited
to eat their favorite food, pizza, for Christmas dinner!
It felt as festive as anything we could have created at home and everyone was happy. Best of all, we made lotsof special memories that the boys still talk about today.
I am so glad we broke free from the tradition. It feels as if we have regained the spirit of Christmas by doing
what works for us, and we’ve created our own new traditions instead. Quality family time is so much more precious
than any gift that Santa could bring.
24. Why did the author feel Christmas Day in 2023 “far from festive”?
A. Her children argued with each other. B. Making dishes for Christmas was tough.
C. The whole family failed to have fun. D. The bad weather made her feel depressed.
25. What was the boys’ attitude towards the change of Santa’s gifts?
A. Indifferent. B. Shocked. C. Excited. D. Skeptical.
26. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Baz was fed up with decorating the house with toys.
B. They tended to celebrate Christmas with extended families.
C. Children had a preference for traditional Christmas celebrations.
D. I was satisfied with Christmas 2024 because it was stress-free.
27. According to the author, what’s the spirit of Christmas?
A. Keeping an old tradition. B. Enjoying quality family time.
C. Receiving precious gifts. D. Sharing expensive experiences.
C
If you are a bean, nut, and seed lover, nutritionists say that you are on a good diet as these are some of the
healthiest foods. Locally, nutritionists say these are very much affordable sources of protein, fibre, iron, and
vitamins that offer many health benefits.
Gerald Ruzindana, a nutrition and wellness expert, says protein is a vital nutrient that plays a key role in
maintaining and repairing the body, and legumes (豆科植物) are high in amino acids (氨基酸), the building blocks
of protein. He says that people should consider consuming legumes on a daily basis. “With their presence of
proteins, consuming legumes helps heal and make new tissues in the body,” he says. Legumes are also linked to
significantly lower risks of heart disease, high blood pressure according to studies.
“It’s surprising how many people still don’t understand the benefits that come with consuming legumes,” says
Erick Musengimana, a nutritionist at Rwanda Diabetes Association. He adds that legumes provide fibre, protein,
carbohydrate, B vitamins, and because they are plant foods, they are cholesterol free as well, which makes them a
perfect option. From studies, one serving of legumes, which is one-half cup, provides about 115 calories, 20g of
carbohydrate, 7–9g of fibre, 8g of protein, and 1g of fat. It has also been established that legumes are an essential
part of many healthy eating patterns, including the Mediterranean style of eating and vegetarian.Along with being a highly nutritious food, evidence shows that legumes can play an important role in the
prevention and management of a number of health conditions. Also, nutritionists say that a diet that regularly
includes legumes may help with weight control, because of its fibre content and protein, as this means that it will
slowly get digested after consumption, therefore, aiding in satiety.
28. According to the passage, what is an important nutrient that sustains and restores the body?
A. Vitamin. B. Amino acid. C. Fibre. D. Protein.
29. Why does the author mention the statistics in paragraph 3?
A. To illustrate that legumes are popular. B. To explain why legumes are cholesterol-free.
C. To prove the nutritional value of legumes. D. To compare legumes with other eating styles.
30. What does the underlined word “satiety” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. The state of being full. B. The state of being active.
C. The state of being nutritious. D. The state of being hungry.
31. What’s the main idea of the text?
A. Legumes are helpful to lower risks of heart disease.
B. Legumes are beneficial to people’s physical health.
C. Legumes are a key component of specialized diets.
D. Legumes are economical sources of various nutrients.
D
White noise is defined as noise that contains a mixture of all audible frequencies that human ears can hear
(about 20 hertz to 20 kilohertz). This type of noise includes low-, midrange - and high-frequency sounds. Some
noise types (or colors) get their names based on colors of light wavelengths. White light contains all the frequencies
in the visible range, so you can see how white noise earned its name. Another way to think about it is as “20,000
tones all playing at the same time.”
Why is it good to sleep with white noise? It can be an effective tool for “noise masking” and help avoid
trouble sleeping. Studies indicate that listening to white noise for sleep can have some payoffs, such as by blocking
out other sounds that can startle you out of sleep.
Researchers believe that white noise is a noise that makes someone’s hearing threshold level (阀域值) reach
its maximum rate, which means the presence sounds in the background become less capable of stimulating the
cerebral cortex (大脑皮层) region of the brain during sleep.
A study published in 2021 examined the effects of white noise on sleep for 10 New York City residents who
live in a high-noise environment. While the sample size is small, the data showed that “white noise significantly
improved sleep based on subjective and objective measurements in subjects complaining of difficulty sleeping dueto high levels of environmental noise.” Further researches confirms these findings. For instance, white noise helped
improved average total sleep time in patients admitted to a coronary care unit in a 2016 study, while research
published in 2022 found that critically ill patients improved their sleep quality with the use of white noise.
White noise are now widely available. There’s one option to use a sleep machine app on your phone if you
don’t want to purchase a device. If using white noise while studying, try listening to YouTube videos on your
computer or phone completely for free, which can play in the background and drown out other distracting sounds.
32. Why is listening to white noise beneficial to sleep?
A. It influences the colors of light wavelengths. B. It plays many tones at the same time.
C. It blocks out other sounds that disturb sleep. D. It contains all audible frequencies.
33. What did the studies find about the effects of white noise on sleep?
A. White noise improved the sleep of residents in noisy areas.
B. White noise was ineffective for the sleep of critically ill patients.
C. White noise caused patients’ difficulty sleeping.
D. White noise improved average total sleep time largely.
34. How does the author introduce the ways of getting white noise?
A. By listing some figures. B. By giving an example.
C. By making a comparison. D. By giving a definition.
35. Which of the following would be the best title for the text?
A. Why is White Noise? B. What is White Noise?
C. How to Get White Noise? D. Where to Get White Noise?
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Support a Long-Distance Friend
Staying connected with close friends can be challenging when they live far away. You might feel helpless
when a distant friend is going through a tough time. ____36____ However, with some efforts, you can still
provide meaningful support and strengthen your friendship.
“Physical distance can make us feel disconnected,” Dr. Sophie Mort, a clinical psychologist says, “but being
emotionally present is key.” Here are four practical ways to show you care.
____37____
This simple act can bridge the physical gap between you. A care package is a powerful way to show you’re
thinking of them. It could include their favorite snacks, a heartfelt letter, or something that reminds you of a shared
memory. “This gesture is especially meaningful during difficult times, offering comfort and a sense of connection,”Dr. Mort adds.
.
Schedule regular video calls
While not the same as meeting in person, regular video calls can create a sense of routine and provide quality
time together. ____38____ The key is to be fully present during the call. Avoid distractions and focus on the
conversation. This intentional effort will make your friend feel valued.
Share an activity online.
To make your virtual meetings more engaging, try developing a shared hobby. ____39____ You could do
yoga together, cook the same recipe while on the call, or start a two-person book club. “These shared experiences
create new topics for conversations and a stronger sense of doing things together,” Dr. Mort suggests.
Work on a project together.
____40____ Whether you are working towards a fitness goal or planning an adventure, it gives you a shared
purpose. It could be a fitness challenge where you track each other’s progress, learning a new skill like painting, or
even planning a future trip. Collaborating on something fun helps maintain a strong connection despite the distance.
Although miles apart, your friendship can continue to grow. With creativity and commitment, you can show
that true friendship knows no boundaries.
A. Create a shared memory.
B. Send a Personal Care Package.
C. Therefore, it is crucial to find a time when you are both free and can give each other your full attention.
D. The physical distance may seem like a huge problem.
E. Starting a shared project gives you a common goal to be excited about.
F. This could be almost anything you both enjoy.
G. It’s not about the form of communication, but the frequency.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15个小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卷
上将该项涂黑。
This happened around November of 2015 when I was working at a local hotel. It was the night shift when an
elderly man came to ask for a room. After going through the regular procedure for getting him ____41____, he told
me his story.
He and his wife had come up into my hometown for a ____42____, but his wife had a medical emergency
and was taken to the nearby hospital. Unwilling to ____43____ the trip or make another long drive home, he decided
to spend a few nights at the hotel to get closer to knowing his wife’s situation. As I’m talking to him, he told me hewas a veteran from Vietnam and he started to ____44____ his time in the service, talking about his wartime friends and
the ____45____ they’d made during that hard time.
I was ____46____ by this and kept talking to him about his experiences. As we talked, I stepped into the
backroom to place an order for a pizza. When the food was ____47____, the man started to excuse himself, claiming
he didn’t want to ____48____ my meal. When I told him it was for him, he cried — for the first time someone had
____49____ a hand of generosity to him.
He showed me his badge and then talked about how Vietnam soldiers weren’t _____50_____ the best when
they came back to American soil and that further moved me.
As he headed to his hotel room, I carried his _____51_____ and followed. He tried to stop me, but I insisted,
saying I was _____52_____ to respect elders and lend a helping hand wherever I could, since a small act of
_____53_____ would go a long way. The veteran thanked me _____54_____. The next day, I went home feeling
like the most accomplished individual, knowing I’d _____55_____ in someone’s life.
.
41 A. checked in B. checked off C. carried in D. carried out
42. A. treatment B. vacation C. course D. project
43. A. lengthen B. shorten C. widen D. strengthen
44. A. range B. remind C. recall D. recite
45. A. mistakes B. plans C. decisions D. bonds
46. A. touched B. amazed C. encouraged D. impressed
.
47 A. withdrawn B. purchased C. delivered D. canceled
48. A. infect B. invest C. inquire D. interrupt
49. A. extended B. dropped C. grabbed D. held
50. A. preserved B. trained C. treated D. observed
51. A. bandage B. devices C. baggage D. groceries
52. A. fascinated B. frightened C. hesitant D. honored
53. A. tiredness B. kindness C. loneliness D. carefulness
54. A. heartily B. honestly C. preciously D. proudly
55. A. made a bet B. made a contribution C. made an effort D. made a difference
非选择题部分
注意：将答案写在答题卷上。写在本试卷上无效。
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China has been actively developing ____56____ (it) circular economy (循环经济) across all industries,turning waste into useful products, aiming to build a circular industrial system with its recycling industry
____57____ (reach) a 5-trillion-yuan output value by year-end.
Chinese companies are using advanced technology to upgrade the industry. At a circular economy industrial
park in Suzhou, Jiangsu, high-tech ____58____ (facility) can handle around 500 tons of kitchen waste every day.
“About 90 percent of kitchen waste can ____59____ (recycle) into nutrient-rich soil for landscaping or
composting (堆肥), or turned into biomass natural gas ____60____ the city’s gas grid (供气网),” said Huang
Yuanchen, general manager of a local environmental company.
The secondhand market ____61____ was once popular in the US and Europe is now also growing in China
as ____62____ green choice, covering home appliances, books, digital products, camping gear, and fitness
equipment. Big discounts make them ____63____ (afford) for more people to enjoy their hobbies.
“The secondhand economy boosts products circulation, unlocking new consumer needs ____64____ helping
the domestic economy,” said Li Yongjian, a researcher at the Chinese Academy of Social Sciences. “____65____
(promote) the circular economy, we must not only strengthen the industry but also raise public awareness and
spread the idea of sustainable development.” (Xinhua)
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Peter来信与你探讨科技话题，他想了解AI曾帮你解决实际问题的经历，
请你给Peter写一封回信，内容包括：
1. 描述AI帮你解决问题的具体经历；2. 分享你对AI与日常生活关系的新认知。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80左右；2. 请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
An orange firework burst overhead. “Where do the sparkles go after they fall out of the sky?” Annika askedher family. “Do you know?”
Her little brother, Ben, gurgled and waved his tiny fist. “Great question,” her mom said as she offered Annika
a slice of watermelon. Her dad said, “Hmm,” and adjusted his camera’s lens.
Annika flopped down on the blanket her mom had spread on the grass. A white-and-gold firework blossomed
high above the trees, and they heard a pop-pop-bang! echo down by the lake. Annika tipped her head all the way
back. She watched the sparkles drip like glittering spray from a fountain before they disappeared into the dark. Kids
were running between blankets all over the hilltop, kicking soccer balls, waving streamers.
This was her favorite day of the whole summer.
Do the sparkles turn into stars? Annika wondered. Do they land in the treetops? Do they puddle up at the
bottom of the lake in a mound of glitter?
Two red fireworks shot across the sky like comets and burst into bright white lights that blinked on and off.
Ben screamed happily and threw one of his shoes across the blanket. Her mom laughed and put it back on his foot.
Her dad said, “Wow, look at that one!” and took a photo.
“Can I go look for sparkles?” asked Annika.
“When the show is over, honey,” her mom said.
Annika wiggled her fingers like fireworks at Ben and said, “Ka-boom!”
After the show was done, all the families clapped. They talked about what a great fireworks show it was and
wished each other a happy Fourth of July. Annika sighed. Her favorite day of the whole summer was almost over.
Everyone started packing up to go.
Annika gathered the watermelon rinds and helped her mom fold the blanket. Annika’s dad put away his
camera and picked up Ben. Then Annika tugged her mother’s sleeve. “May I go look for sparkles, please? Just for
two minutes?”
“OK,” Annika’s mom said. “But stay where we can see you.”
Annika ran to the edge of the field and looked around.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；2.请按如下格式作答。
.
There were no orange sparkles in the grass
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________“A firefly!” Annika yelled out.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
