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2024-2025 学年七年级上学期期末仿真模拟卷 02（人教版）
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准
考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，
用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第I卷（选择题部分 85分）
一、听力测试（共20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完
每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读二遍。
1．Who has a round face?
A．The boy. B．The girl. C．The boy’s sister.
2．Why does Bill like Wednesday?
A．Because he has science. B．Because he has PE. C．Because it’s relaxing.
3．What’s the girl’s first name?
A．Smith. B．Jenny. C．Mary.
4．When does David often go to the reading club?
A．In the morning. B．In the afternoon. C．In the evening.
5．Where is the gym?
A．It’s next to the library. B．It’s behind the library. C．It’s in front of the dining hall.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面4段对话和1段独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选
出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5
秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答下列6-7小题。
6．What will the speakers give to their English teacher?
A．A book. B．A pen. C．A card.
7．Where will the speakers go?
A．To the store. B．To the school. C．To the party.
听下面一段对话，回答下列8-9小题。
8．How old is Dale?
A．He is 11. B．He is 12. C．He is 17.9．When is Dale’s birthday?
A．On July 12th. B．On August 12th. C．On July 22nd.
听下面一段对话，回答下列10-12小题。
10．What time does Peter have breakfast?
A．At 6:00. B．At 7:00. C．At 8:00.
11．When does Anna go to school?
A．In the morning. B．In the afternoon. C．In the evening.
12．What does Anna usually do at 7:30 in the evening?
A．Does her homework. B．Watches TV. C．Goes to bed.
听下面一段对话，回答下列13-15小题。
13．What is Peter’s sister’s job?
A．A teacher. B．A doctor. C．A student.
14．What time does Peter’s sister go to work?
A．At 6:30. B．At 7:00. C．At 5:30.
15．What does Peter’s sister usually do after getting up?
A．Take a shower. B．Do housework. C．Do some exercise.
听下面一段独白，回答下列16-20小题。
16．How many sports teams are there in the sports club?
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four.
17．What do students join the sports club for?
A．To relax themselves. B．To improve their skills. C．To make more friends.
18．Where does the art teacher come from?
A．An art college. B．An art centre. C．An art museum.
19．When does the art club usually hold activities?
A．On Wednesday. B．On Thursday. C．On Friday.
20．Which club has the most students in the school?
A．The sports club. B．The music club. C．The art club.
二、选择填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
21．—Welcome to my house. Let me show you around.
—________.
A．That’s right B．You’re welcome C．Thank you D．It’s OK
22．—Hello, can I help you?
—________. I need a sweater.
A．No, thank you B．Yes, please C．Sorry D．Your are welcome
23．In my school, there are a lot of funny _________ for students to have fun.
A．activities B．mistakes C．animals D．jobs24．________ hat is black, and ________ is black, too.
A．He; mine B．His; my C．He; my D．His; mine
25．—Where do you want to go ________ this Saturday?
—Oh, I’m going to the library ________ Saturday afternoon.
A．/; on B．on; on C．in; on D．/; in
26．—Science is _______ for me.
—Don’t worry (别担心). You can ask our science teacher Miss Li for help.
A．easy B．fun C．relaxing D．difficult
27．Helen _________ learns English for a year, but she speaks English very well.
A．usually B．only C．really D．even
28．It’s important for students to _________ the right way to learn.
A．tell B．give C．mark D．choose
29．—Is the girl in the red dress your sister?
—_________. She is my new friend Angelina.
A．Yes, she is B．No, she isn’t C．Yes, she does D．No, she doesn’t
30．Mary thinks geography is really difficult, ________ she doesn’t like it.
A．but B．because C．so D．or
三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Hello, boys and girls! Nice to 31 you! I am 12. I am an American. Now I am 32 Yichun, China. This
is a beautiful city.
Please look at my family photo. Can you see me? I am in a red dress. This boy is my brother John, 33
this is my sister Ann. We study in the 34 school. We often 35 to school at 7:00 in the morning. These are
my 36 . They are Eric and Alice. This is my grandmother, Mona.
We 37 sport. I always play football at school with my classmates. My brother likes to 38 tennis after
class. Ann likes 39 . She always plays volleyball with her friends. My parents are very 40 . But they often
play ping-pong on Sundays. My grandma doesn’t play sport. But she watches 41 on TV.
I have a good eating habit (饮食习惯). I 42 want to be fat (胖的). I only eat healthy (健康的) 43 .
For breakfast, I like eggs, bread and oranges. For lunch, I have chicken and vegetables. And for 44 , I have rice
and fruit.
Oh, who am I? Haha, my name 45 Sam Brown.
31．A．look B．thank C．meet D．think
32．A．on B．in C．for D．from
33．A．because B．so C．but D．and
34．A．same B．favourite C．game D．small
35．A．play B．go C．take D．want
36．A．parents B．brothers C．sisters D．uncles
37．A．choose B．help C．find D．love38．A．say B．play C．spell D．know
39．A．football B．basketball C．volleyball D．ping-pong
40．A．easy B．welcome C．tidy D．busy
41．A．it B．them C．you D．us
42．A．do B．don’t C．does D．doesn’t
43．A．eggs B．carrots C．food D．salad
44．A．dinner B．breakfast C．lunch D．day
45．A．is B．am C．are D．be
四、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Dear Rita,
We would like to invite you to celebrate Julia’s 14th birthday. This is your ticket to a magical birthday party!
To give her a surprise, please join us without telling her about the party.
We also hope that: you dress up in Disney style; you shout “Surprise!” when Julia comes down the stairs.
We plan to play board games, watch movies and enjoy plenty of snacks. You are also welcome to bring a
friend.
Come on down to Julia’s house on Park Lane and have some fun!
Saturday, February 12, 2024 From 6:00—9:00 pm.
Please reply (回复) by February 9, 2024.
RSVP: Birthday.party@geemail.com.
46．What can we learn about this birthday party?
A．Rita will be the host of it. B．Anyone can buy a ticket to join.
C．It is for Julia who will turn 14 this year. D．There will be a magic show.
47．What do the guests plan to shout to the birthday girl?
A．“Happy birthday!” B．“Have fun!” C．“Magic!” D．“Surprise!”
48．What will people do at the party?
a. Play board games. b. Watch movies. c. Dress up their dolls (玩偶). d. Eat snacks.
A．abc B．abd C．bcd D．acd
49．If Rita wants to join the party, she needs to ________ first.
A．make a call to Julia B．make plenty of snacks
C．write an email as a reply D．Prepare a birthday gift for Julia
50．Which of the following is TRUE?
A．Guests must bring a friend. B．Guests will go to a Disney Park.
C．The party will last about three hours. D．Guests must reply to the invitation by February 6.
B
Welcome to Our Winter Clubs (寒假俱乐部)Basketball Club Skating Club
Time: Mon. Thurs. & Fri. Time: Tues. Wed. & Fri.
8:30 a. m.-10:30 a. m. 9:00 a. m.-11:00 a. m.
Place (地点): School Playground Place: Room 102
Teacher: Mr. Zhang Teacher: Miss Huang
Tel: 8767752 Tel: 6227051
Ping-pong Club Swimming Club
Time: Wed. Thurs. & Sun. Time: Tues. Fri. Sat. & Sun.
8:00 a. m.-10:00 a. m. 9:00 a. m.-10:30 a. m.
2:30 p. m.-4:30 p. m. 2:30 p. m.-4:00 p. m.
Place: Room 105 Place: Swimming Pool
Teacher: Mr. Wu Teacher: Miss Deng and Mr. Liu
Tel: 6527663 Tel: 8658815
51．Where can students learn basketball?
A．On School Playground. B．In Room 102.
C．In Room 105. D．In Swimming Pool.
52．Who is Miss Huang?
A．A volleyball teacher. B．A skating teacher.
C．A ping-pong teacher. D．A swimming teacher.
53．Bill wants to learn to play ping-pong. He needs to call ________.
A．8767752 B．6227051 C．6527663 D．8658815
54．On Sunday, students can go to Winter Clubs to learn ________.
A．skating and basketball B．basketball and ping-pong
C．ping-pong and skating D．ping-pong and swimming
55．Which of the following is TRUE (正确的) ?
A．Only one teacher teaches swimming. B．Mr. Zhang teaches students basketball.
C．Students can learn ping-pong on Friday. D．All clubs are from 9:00 a. m. to 11:00 a. m.
C
Look! Do you know the woman in this photo? She is Allysa Seely from the USA．At the age of 24, Allysa
lost (失去) part of her left leg. But she is very brave. She is the Paralympic triathlon champion (残奥会铁人三项
冠军) again this year!
Let’s see what Allysa does in a day. Every morning, she gets up at 5 o’clock. She swims for about 2 hours
and then has breakfast at 10 o’clock. At 11 o’clock, she goes to run and cycle for about 3 hours. Then she has
lunch at 2 o’clock in the afternoon. After that, she runs and cycles again for about 2 hours. Then she goes to seeher doctor. At 6:30, it’s time for her to have dinner. Guess what? Allysa goes to bed (床) at just 8:45 in the
evening.
Note: 铁人三项包括游泳(swimming)、骑自行车(cycling)、跑步(running)。
56．Where is Allysa from?
A．Japan. B．Canada. C．America. D．England.
57．The word “brave” means “________” in Chinese.
A．勇敢的 B．沮丧的 C．可怜的 D．开心的
58．When does Allysa have breakfast?
A．At 5 a.m. B．At 7 a.m. C．At 10 a.m. D．At 11 a.m.
59．Allysa runs and cycles for about ________ hours every day.
A．two B．three C．four D．five
60．What do we know about Allysa?
A．She lost her right leg. B．She gets up early every day.
C．She usually swims in the evening. D．She has dinner at a quarter to nine.
第二节 语篇还原
Jane is an English girl. She is in China with her parents now. 61 It is Jane’s 12th birthday. In the morning,
she comes out of her room to have breakfast. Her parents don’t say “Happy birthday!” to her. 62 At school, she
meets two of her good friends Li Mei and Lin Qi, but they don’t say anything.
“No one knows when my birthday is,” she says to herself. 63 After school, she walks home alone (独自).
When she gets home, she surprisingly (惊讶地) finds her good friends are in her house. 64 And many other gifts
(礼物) are on the table, too. 65 “Happy birthday, my dear! We just want to give you a surprise,” says Mrs.
Miller. Jane is really happy and they have a good time!
A．Jane’s mother gives her a big hug (拥抱).
B．Jane likes ice-cream very much.
C．It’s the third day of June.
D．Jane feels sad (感到伤心) all day at school.
E．A big cake with fruit is on the table.
F．Then her mother, Mrs. Miller, takes her to school.
第II卷 （非选择题 共35分）
五、任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，回答下列问题。
Do you want to visit other schools? Do you want to become a guest-pupil (旁听生) at another school?
Today is Friday. Sam is so lucky (幸运的) because he can be a guest-pupil at Jade’s school.
There are four classes in the morning. The first lesson is maths and it starts at 8:00 a. m. After that, Sam and
Jade have a music class. Sam thinks the music class is the best because the teacher teaches (教) them some popular
(流行的) songs. They all enjoy them very much. The following English class and Chinese class are great as well.
In the afternoon, there are only two lessons, P.E. and science. P.E. is often relaxing. Students can do their
favourite sports happily. Mr Green is a science teacher. He is like a friend to the students. Jade and Sam both likehis classes very much. The last class finishes at 5: 30 p. m. Then Sam and Jade ride their bikes home.
For Sam, the day is busy but he has a lot of fun.
66．Whose school does Sam go to today as a guest-pupil?（不超过5个词）
67．Which class does Sam like best?（不超过5个词）
68．What lessons does Sam have in the afternoon?（不超过5个词）
69．How does Sam go back home after school? （不超过5个词）
70．How is Sam’s day as a guest-pupil?（不超过5个词）
六、语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词 (有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式)。
Dear Jimmy,
How time flies! It’s really nice 71 (get) your e-mail.
Now, it’s 5 o’clock. My classmates 72 (play) basketball in the sports center. But I can’t wait to tell you
something about my new school.
We have a big school library. It 73 (lie) in the middle of the school. There are many different 74 (kind)
of books, maps, and magazines. Every day, I spend lots of time 75 (read) there. Behind the library, 76 the left,
is the classroom building. There are 50 students in my class. They are very nice. I feel 77 (luck) to be here.
Studying in middle school is not 78 same as that in primary school. But I will try my best to enjoy it and
do it 79 (good).
Write and tell me 80 your school is like. Waiting for your reply.
Best wishes,
Y
ours,
L
in Tao
七、书面表达（共1大题，满分15分）
亲爱的同学们，一个学期的初中生活马上就要结束了！你遇见了不少新朋友吧？你的英语也进步了
不少吧？请你根据以下表格信息，用英文写一篇短文介绍一下自己的情况吧！
姓名 刘 洋
年龄 13岁
生日 五月最喜欢的运动 篮球
（请阐述原因I think…and…） 每天放学后和同班同学们打球
健康的饮食习惯 喜欢水果和蔬菜
星期五
最喜欢的一天
有一节1小时的美术课；令人放松
这学期遇见新老师、新朋友；很忙，很开心。
要求：
1. 词数：60—80词；
2. 必须包括表格中的所有信息；
3. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名；
4. 句子通顺，意思连续，书写工整。
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