文档内容
2025 年池州市普通高中高三教学质量统一监测
英语
满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟
注意事项：
1.答卷前，务必将自己的姓名和座位号填写在答题卡和试卷上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动，务必擦净后再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷
上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂
到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，
并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一
小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the two speakers mainly talking about?
A. A meeting. B. A plan. C. A party.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the woman’s plan for tonight?
A. To go to the charity concert.
B. To spend time with her mother.
C. To buy something for her mother.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Where did the woman leave her notebook?
A. In a bag. B. Next to the phone. C. In her jacket pocket.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What did the man do last night?
A. He stayed in the library.
B. He prepared for a test.C. He went to a party.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the man really concerned about?
A. Where to get a taxi.
B. What is making a noise.
C. How soon the problem can be fixed.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，
每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. Who is Felix?
A. The woman’s husband.
B. A fan of the woman’s book.
C. A character in the woman’s book.
7. What relation probably is the man to Celia?
A. Her fan. B. Her assistant. C. Her director.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. Which place will the man see first?
A. Nice Avenue. B. DB Tower. C. Modern Bridge.
9. What will the man probably do in Walter Square?
A. Buy local snacks.
B. Enjoy folk music and dancing.
C. Get a wonderful view of the city.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
10. When did the woman come back?
A. Four days ago. B. Two weeks ago. C. Two days ago.
11. How does the man know the woman?
A. They used to work together.
B. They usually go to the same café.C. They are working on a proposal together.
12. What does the woman think of architects?
A. Their work life is healthy.
B. They don’t get paid enough.
C. They always take business trips.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
13. Where are the two speakers probably?
A. On the plane. B. On the train. C. On the ship.
14. Where is the man travelling?
A. In China. B. In Canada. C. In India.
15. How many people are travelling with the man?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
16. When did the woman go to China?
A. About one month ago. B. About one year ago. C. About ten years ago.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. Why do people at some point buy the prepared meals?
A. They're attracted by the packaging.
B. They're unaware of their health.
C. They're too busy to cook.
18. What does the speaker suggest people do with products having hard-to-understand labels?
A. Put them back. B. Give them a try. C. Ask others to explain.
19. What are good packaged foods?
A. Foods with detailed labels.
B. Foods that can also be home-made.
C. Foods that have simple materials.
20. How many suggestions does the speaker give?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
AWhile pets are permitted to fly on many airlines, there are some extra pet-friendly to allow them in the cabin
(客舱).
KM Malta Airlines (Malta)
Based in the European island country of Malta, KM Malta Airlines has a higher weight allowance of 10kg,
compared with 8kg with most European airlines. Container size: 40cm (L)×34cm (W)×18cm (H). The fee is a flat
E70. Note that the pet’s health report is required.
Vueling (Spain)
The Spanish airline Vueling mainly operates out of Barcelona. Their weight limit of 10kg for pets flying in the
cabin was reduced back to 8kg in 2023, applying to new bookings. Up to three pets are permitted on each flight.
The maximum container size is 45×39×21cm. The fee is E50 on domestic flights within Spain and E60 on
international flights.
Belavia (Belarus)
Belavia, the flag-carrier of Belarus, offers the option to travel with it at your feet with a container the
maximum size of 55×40×20cm and weight of 8kg, or buy a seat with a larger container permitted, up to
55×40×40cm, and 23kg. The standard fee to transport a pet in the cabin is €50. Each flight allows no more than
three pets.
Etihad Airways (UAE)
The Middle Eastern airline Etihad Airways, based in Abu Dhabi, flies throughout the world. Two options are
provided. You can fly with your pet at your feet, in a container no larger than 40×40×22cm, or buy it a seat, in a
container up to 50×43×50cm. Previously the charge was a set $200 (€190), but now $1,500 in addition to an extra
seat.
21. What is required when passengers fly a pet on KM Malta Airlines?
A. Buying a seat for the pet. B. Renting a container at the airport.
C. Proving the pet’s health. D. Paying more for weight over 10kg.
22. What do Vueling and Belavia have in common?
A. The weight limit of a pet. B. The standard container size.
C. The maximum of pets permitted. D. The lowest fee for flying a pet abroad.
23. Which of the following airlines charges most for flying a pet?
A. KM Malta Airlines. B. Vueling. C. Belavia. D. Etihad Airways.
B
Wu Xiong, a 40-year-old headmaster, has spent 20 years turning a once-deserted rural school in the mountains
into a center for sports and education.In 2004, Wu became headmaster of Tangfang Primary School in Baling Town, Guizhou Province. At that time,
the school was merely an old house, with 3 teachers and 75 students. Worse still, many children showed little
interest in attending school. To address this issue, Wu had an idea: sports. In 2006, the school held its first sports
meeting. “We carried a cement slab (水泥板) from 1.5 kilometers away and used wooden boards as a net for a table
tennis competition,” Wu recalled.
With more money put into education, Tangfang Primary School got better facilities, but Wu still felt it
necessary for students to participate in sporting activities. Now, basketball hoops (篮圈) are designed in three
different sizes to suit students of different age groups, while sports equipment storage facilities are never locked up.
Wu also makes it a rule that PE cannot yield to other subjects.
,
Now students have at least 2.5 hours set aside every day for physical activities. Among the 469 students
of the school, only six wear glasses. Meanwhile, by participating in various sports competitions, the students learn
how to deal with wins and losses properly. According to a recent report, the school's average scores have risen from
below 30 in 2004 to over 80 in 2023. Sports have offered the students another way out of the mountains. More than
100 graduates of the school have entered middle schools as sports-focused students.
Wu hopes that the happy school memories will help graduates stay connected to their hometown and get ready
for their future.
24. What inspired Wu to think of sports as a solution?
A. Rich sports resources. B. Requirements from teachers.
C. Students' lack of interest in study. D. Children's stress from examinations.
25. What does the underlined phrase "yield to" in Paragraph 3 mean?
A. Compare with. B. Give in to.
C. Contribute to. D. Take the place of.
26. Why does the author list the numbers in Paragraph 4?
A. To show progress in grades. B. To highlight influences of sports.
C. To stress the importance of study. D. To introduce types of sports activities.
27. Which can be a suitable title for the passage?
A. Headmaster Transformed School With Sports B. A Unique Physical Education Class
C. Students Made Breakthroughs in Competition D. The Life Story of a Headmaster
C
The health benefits of being in nature have long been known, whether through activities like listening to
birdsong or taking a walk in the park. A study published in 2024 shows that even half an hour of bird watching
could make us happier, healthier and help develop a deeper connection with nature. The study suggests that notonly can bird-watching offer even more benefits than just listening to birdsong, it’s more effective at increasing
well-being and reducing stress than going on a nature walk.
So why is bird-watching so good for us? Biophilia could be a big part of it. Biophilia is the belief that humans
have an affection for nature, so being in natural surroundings makes us feel well. Meanwhile, biodiversity is a
natural medicine for humans that can help reduce stress and encourage physical activity.
Bird-watching can be awesome (令人敬畏的) as well as joyful. “Noticing” nature is an essential aspect of
awe. Noticing means that people’s full attention is on the birds rather than themselves. When watching birds,
people become fully concentrated on identifying bird species, understanding their behaviors and observing their
actions. This state occurs naturally, fueled by great curiosity, high concentration and continuous engagement. By
doing so, birdwatchers can immerse (沉浸) themselves in nature, which can improve mental and physical health.
So, step into nature for a bird-watching session and a well-being boost (提升). Start the journey and enjoy
every moment.
28. What does the study mentioned in Paragraph 1 suggest?
.
A Birdsong is hardly heard in parks. B. Bird-watching offers great benefits.
C. Benefits of being in nature are known. D. People prefer walking to watching birds.
29. What makes bird-watching awesome according to the passage?
A. Understanding of life. B. Concern about humans.
C. Improvement of health. D. Respect for nature itself.
30. What is the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
A. To introduce a bird species. B. To recommend people a park.
C. To call on people to watch birds. D. To inform people of birds’ situation.
31. In which section of a newspaper may this passage appear?
A. Health. B. Fashion. C. History. D. Food.
D
Imagine obtaining traditional Chinese medicine (TCM) services with just a click on your smartphone. The
tiring hospital trip — often causing long waits and many troubles, especially for the old — can now be done easily
online.
The new program is transforming TCM medical services. Users can now receive a detailed health report in
under 2 minutes simply after shooting a quick photo of their tongue. Developers explain this breakthrough
combines traditional TCM tongue examination methods with modern AI image analysis technology. Within half a
year, the program has served over 30,000 users, with 94% reporting satisfactory outcomes.
The application of AI in TCM holds significant promise for areas with limited medical resources. In distant,
regions where access to experienced doctors is rare AI-assisted tools could improve healthcare quality with
their medical abilities. While AI offers great potential for TCM, accurate diagnosis (诊断) still relies heavily on the
doctors' professional judgment.
Although AI has made progress in TCM, more work is needed due to the lack of standard rules. TCM’s
diverse schools and approaches, developed over thousands of years, often lead to different treatment plans for the
same illness, making it difficult for AI to learn effectively. Additionally, while computers have been used in TCM
since the 1980s, early systems were too simple to handle complex patient conditions with unpredictable symptoms
(症状). To address these issues, China is working on standardizing TCM by establishing 180 national and 30
international standards by 2026, while researchers are developing better TCM-AI tools.
In conclusion, the integration (融合) of AI into TCM will greatly improve healthcare by making TCM more
accessible and efficient. However, as the journey is only beginning, much work remains. With joint efforts from
researchers and practitioners, there is every reason to believe that TCM is expected to not only enhance the quality
of healthcare but also extend its benefits to communities far and wide.
32. What should users do to experience the program’s service?
A. Hand in a health report. B. Examine their whole body.
C. Make changes to their diet. D. Take a photo of their tongue.
.
33 Which of the following is the program’s advantage?
A. Health care for the elderly. B. AI’s assistance in diagnosis.
C. Full replacement of doctors. D. Accurate judgment of illnesses.
34. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about?
A. Challenges in the combination. B. Achievements of the program.
C. Technologies behind the program. D. Various schools and ideas of TCM.
35. What is the author’s attitude towards the program?
A. Unclear. B. Disapproving. C. Doubtful. D. Positive.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How To Start a Compost Bin (堆肥桶)
Welcome to our easy guide on starting your own compost bin! Composting is a great way to reduce waste and
even provides rich soil for your garden. Don’t worry if you just start out. ___36___
The first step is selecting a proper place. ___37___ Therefore, find an area that is hidden from view. Make
sure the spot receives sunlight and has good drainage (排水系统).
___38___ There are various choices for you, such as bins with removable tops, wooden containers and evenplastic boxes. Consider factors like size, cost, height and how much waste you create when deciding which type
suits you best.
Start building your compost pile by layering suitable materials one by one, such as dry leaves or vegetable
leftovers, etc. ___39___ Turning the pile occasionally helps air pass through, promoting breakdown and
preventing unpleasant smells.
To keep your compost bin functioning well, not only should you regularly add new food waste but also turn
the pile every few weeks to speed up breakdown. Remember to monitor moisture (湿度) levels. ___40___ After a
few months of care, your compost will turn into dark, soil-like material. This means it’s ready to use! Put this rich
soil in your garden, and you’ll see your plants grow strong and healthy. We hope this guide has provided you with
the knowledge and inspiration to begin your composting journey. Happy composting!
A. The bigger, the better.
B. Composting doesn’t look good.
C. Now, time to choose the right type of bins.
D. Leave them as they are after they break down naturally.
E. Avoid meat products and milk as these can produce bad smell.
F. Our step-by-step guide will walk you through the whole process.
G. It means you should adjust as needed by adding water or dry materials.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最
佳选项。
In a small village, people were used to daily tasks and only a few could read. Hannah was one of them.
Hannah, an adventurous girl, would spend hours ___41___ new things. One afternoon she came across an old
wooden house. Hannah stepped ___42___ slowly and in front of her was a room full of books!
Hannah’s face soon lit up with ___43___ — she found a treasure! Seeing the dirt on the books, Hannah did
the cleaning ___44___ it was very dark. She picked two books and left. All night long, she read the books
___45___. The next day, she quickly ran to the house again.
The books there were so attractive! Each page was just a(n) ___46___, which took her to a world of talking
animals, mysterious creatures and daring nights... She read about characters who ___47___ difficulties with
determination. ___48___, she learned the power of love and friendship, and that the true strength lies within one’s
own heart.
Inspired by the books, Hannah decided to ___49___ the stories with the people of her village. She wanted to____50____ curiosity and imagination in her peers. Making this her duty, Hannah started telling stories every day
in the wooden house.
____51____, only her very good friend and her family came. But afterwards her wonderful stories attracted
more and more people. Soon, the word of Hannah’s wonderful stories ____52____ to far-off towns. People
traveled from different places to just listen to her stories.
Villagers helped Hannah ____53____ the house. They turned it together into a wonderland of adventures and
imagination. The wooden house has become a reminder: even in the dustiest corners, there can be a hidden
____54____. It is not always gold; it can be the forgotten ____55____ — simply waiting to be shared.
41. A. describing B. buying C. changing D. exploring
42. A. up B. away C. inside D. backward
43. A. relaxation B. excitement C. pride D. shock
44. A. after B. until C. unless D. because
45. A. instantly B. regularly C. carelessly D. tirelessly
46. A. adventure B. mark C. order D. guard
47. A. escaped B. feared C. faced D. posed
.
48 A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Instead
49. A. share B. exchange C. compare D. write
50. A. set off B. slow down C. mix up D. carry out
51. A. Right away B. Later on C. At first D. Over time
52. A. broadcast B. spread C. belonged D. led
53. A. find B. repair C. build D. sell
54. A. identity B. skill C. price D. treasure
55. A. pages B. faces C. friendship D. ability
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 1988, while building a fence at the foot of Meiyuan Mountain, on the southern bank of Yangtze, a villager
from Wangcun Village in Yaodu Town, Dongzhi County, made ___56___ accidental discovery — bonefossils (化
石). He soon reported it to the local authority. Therefore, archaeologists (考古学家) rushed to the site, which
___57___(name) “Hualong Cave” later.
In 2006, 2014, and 2015, more than 12,000 pieces of diverse fossils were unearthed, among ___58___ were
over thirty ancient human bones. Especially, in 2015, a well-preserved head bone was discovered. It’s believed to
belong to a 13 to 14-year-old girl, known ___59___ the “Dongzhi Girl”, who had both ancient and moderncharacteristics. The fourth formal dig, ___60___(begin) from April 2024, unearthed a larger number of bones of
humans and animals, including deer, cattle and giant pandas, along with stone tools ___61___(use) by ancient
humans.
Through deeper studies such as isotope (同位素) dating, it has been determined that the ancient humans in
“Hualong Cave” lived about 300,000 years ago, meaning they might be ___62___(early) ancient humans in East
Asia, developing towards modern humans. “The 300, 000-year time frame is of great historical
___63___(important) to understanding the origins of modern humans,” said Xu Xing, an expert of the Chinese
Academy of Sciences.
___64___(recent), most theories suggest that modern humans came from Africa and moved globally,
____65____ such new evidence proves that modern humans may have originated from different regions.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，你校打算在校内开设动物角。校英文报为此征求同学们意见，请你写一篇短文投稿。
内容包括：
1.陈述看法；2.提出建议。
注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
My Views on Animal Care Centre on Campus
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第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Talent Night
I had a problem —Talent Night was coming up, but I had no talent.
Let me introduce myself: Benjamin Belinski, Human Talent Void (空缺). Kate can make anything using paper
folding. Tommy creates breath-taking beats on overturned plastic buckets. Olivia trains her pet dog to do tricks.
And those are just my friends. My class also boasts (以……为荣) four dancers, a gymnast, two bakers, a boxing
expert, six singers, and five artists, among others.
Every day my teacher asked if I’d decided what to do. And every day I reminded her that I had no talent.
“Nonsense, Benjamin,” she would say. “You’ll think of something.” “I’ll just have to be sick the day of the show,” Iannounced to my friends one afternoon. “If you get a cold, be sure to cough on me.”
“You must have a talent,” said Kate to me. “Let’s make a list. What are you good at?” “Eating,” I answered.
“Watching TV.” Kate rolled her eyes and said, “Benjamin, be serious!” Kate looked at our friends. “Come on, guys.
What are Benjamin’s talents?”
“He’s good with dogs,” said Olivia. “My dog adores him.” She was telling the truth, I supposed, for I could sit
on the stage while her dog licked my face. I was Benjamin Belinski, Human Dog Toy!
“Benjamin’s funny when he’s joking,” said Tommy. He turned to me. “You could do a comedy routine.” True,
as every joke could be about how I had no talents. So I joked myself as Benjamin Belinski, Human Talent Void!
“Benjamin,” said Kate, “maybe you don’t know how to juggle (杂耍), but your birthday parties are the best.”
Yeah, “ agreed Olivia,” and you always get us together to do stuff. Like having game nights or riding bikes after
school — or when we held that yard sale. The week you had the flu, we didn’t do anything fun. “You’re like the
glue holding us together,” added Tommy.” Oh, great, I joked. “Benjamin Belinski, Human Glue Gun!”
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
Anyway, their comments made me think of something.
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During the show, everyone and everything was perfect.
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