文档内容
2024~2025 学年第一学期高一年级期末学业诊断
英语试卷
(考试时间:上午8:00~10:00)
说明:本试卷为闭卷笔答,答题时间120分钟,满分150分。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转写到答
题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是C。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What kind of tea is the man drinking?
.
A Oolong tea. B. Black tea. C. Green tea.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
How does Jimmy sound?
A. Pleased. B. Curious. C. Angry.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
When will the man set off ?
A. Next week. B. This weekend. C. At the end of this month.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the speakers probably to do next?
A. Go to the restaurant. B. Cook at home. C. Order takeaway food.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Why does the woman choose this house?
A. It’s big. B. It has a garden. C. It has a sunlight room.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。答案写在答题卡上。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. What aspect of the natural dyes are the speakers talking about?
A. The market. B. The source. C. The history.
7. Why do natural dyes regain popularity according to the woman?
A. The colors are brighter.
B. Works can be kept longer.
C. They are a reminder to protect nature.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. When did the woman go to the amusement park?
A. On Saturday. B. On Sunday. C. On Monday.
9. What did the woman do to celebrate New Year’s Eve?
A. Get together with friends. B. Enjoy a big dinner. C. Watch fireworks.
10. What is the possible relationship between the speakers?
A. Co-workers. B. Classmates. C. Family.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. What were the speakers probably doing before the conversation?
A. Doing math problems. B. Taking final exams. C. Looking for books.
12. What does Jackie usually do to relax himself ?
A. Play with classmates. B. Do some skipping. C. Drink some water.
13. Where are the speakers probably now?
A. In the gym. B. In the library. C. In the classroom.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
14. How did the man get to the destination?
A. By ship. B. By air. C. By coach.
15. What is the disadvantage of the “igloos“ according to the speech?
A. They can’t last long.
B. Tourists feel freezing inside,
C. The building materials are hard to find.16. How does the man find the food there?
A. It smells fishy. B. It is served cold. C. It is of good quality.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. Why did the speaker learn kung fu?
A. It has a long history.
B. It is good for health.
C. It is a lesson at school.
18. When did the speaker begin to love kung fu?
A. In primary school. B. In senior high school. C. In college.
19. Which film does the speaker enjoy most?
A. Fist of Fury. B. Fist of Legend. C. Project A.
20. What is the greatest benefit of learning kung fu to the speaker?
A. Reducing his stress. B. Finding his inner self. C. Improving his confidence.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
From lively beer festivals to huge community cook-offs, Europe knows how to celebrate its food and drink. And
during the harvest season, which generally runs from mid-September to the end of October, autumn’s harvest is the
star of the show, with a series of festivals that mix seasonal ingredients and folk entertainment. Here are our top
picks.
Weimar Onion Market, Germany
Held from the second weekend to the end of October, the Onion Market in Weimar is this city’s oldest and largest
folk fair, dating back to 1653 and attracting some 300,000 visitors every year. With over 500 stands (摊位) decorated
with circles of onions and dried flowers, people can hang around and pick up slices of onion pie.
Impruneta Grape Festival, Italy
The small town of Impruneta celebrates the harvest with an annual festival, held for about a month around the
September vendemmia (grape harvest). It has dance workshops and theatre concerts, but the highlight is the impressive
parade (游行) that travels through the town’s central square for one day in late September.
Lovran Marunada Festival, Croatia
The Maruni chestnuts have a larger size and a unique, sweet flavour. Try them at the local Marunada Festival,which marks the start of the chestnut harvest. Over the course of a week in October, visitors can dance to the folk
music with the locals while tasting chestnut-flavoured ice cream, cake and wine.
Beuvron-en-Auge Clder Festival, France
Beuvron-en-Auge grows about 60% of the nation’s bittersweet apples. For over 50 years, the pretty village of
Beuvron-en-Auge has marked the end of the apple harvest in mid-October with a two-day festival. Celebrations take
place on the historic market square and include apple-pressing workshops and applewine-tasting activities.
21. Which festival lasts the shortest period of time?
A. Weimar Onion Market. B. Impruneta Grape Festival.
C. Lovran Marunada Festival. D. Beuvron-en-Auge Cider Festival.
22. Where can visitors go to a concert?
A. In Weimar. B. In Impruneta. C. In Lovran. D. In Beuvron-en-Auge.
23. What can visitors do during Lovran Marunada Festival?
A. Parade with the locals. B. Make special apple wine.
C. Taste chestnut-flavoured products. D. Visit stands decorated, with chestnuts.
B
When photojournalist Jasper Doest arrived in the Transylvanian Alps to document the coexistence of humans
,
and wildlife for his film he planned on shooting in the forest of the Southern Carpathian woods. “It’s a beautiful
mountain landscape with the forests — a very wild place,” says Doest. Instead, he found a story on the side of the
road — he got up close and personal with a group of bears begging for food.
While driving on a mountain pass, Doest realized the bears hanging around on the roadside were waiting for
human handouts. He stopped to observe the bears, but when he rolled down his window, a large brown bear headed
directly for the vehicle and made his move, waiting for a tasty treat. “This is the shot,” thought Doest. He forced his
fingers to press the button, getting six shots — one clear, five unclear. Then he realized just how close he’d been to
the animal and its possible dangers.
The region’s brown bears are usually shy around people. It takes just a few meals to get hooked on human food.
And, after that, they don’t stay wild long. They began to depend on humans for existence. Doest changed his ideas to
the assignment after meeting a tourist who proudly told him she’d been feeding bears on the roadside in the
conservation area. “It was the saddest thing,” he says. “It made us realize the bears had completely changed their
behavior.”
In the days that followed Doest saw other examples of how tourists’ handouts had changed the delicate ecosystem
they were visiting. As he watched people feeding bears snacks like doughnuts, he realized the story of conservation
in the region was as much about people as wildlife. “It’s about how to accept nature in our lives, and how we couldbenefit if we do it the right way,” he says. So don’t feed the bears, says Doest — you could save an animal’s life,
and a community’s commitment to wildlife conservation, along the way.
24. Why did Doest go to the Transylvanian Alps?
A. To go hunting. B. To prepare for his film. C. To go travelling. D. To interview visitors.
25. What can we infer from paragraph 2?
A. Doest was never afraid of bears. B. Doest was impatient with the bear.
C. Doest wasn’t good at photographing. D. Doest felt thrilled when taking pictures.
26. What effect will humans’ feeding bring to the brown bears?
A. They tend to become humans’ pets. B. They have a higher risk of getting ill.
C. They are likely to attack people for food. D. They will become too dependent on humans.
27. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To promote his new documentary. B. To record his encounter with bears.
C. To call on people not to feed wildlife. D. To attract more visitors to help bears.
C
On November 13 each year, people from across the globe and from all walks of life will spread acts of kindness in
honour of World Kindness Day. No matter how big or small the acts, this treasured day will be spent spreading love
to friends, family and to those who need it most. People like sending an encouraging message to a close friend,
expressing praise to a co-worker, or treating a stranger to a cup of coffee. This day you can see people all over the
world appreciate kindness and make it the usual practice.
In celebration of World Kindness Day, each year, Australian fashion label Black Pepper organizes a national
search for Australia’s Kindest Person across the country. “We’re so proud to be doing the search for an entire month
to find Australia’s Kindest Person,” says Rachel Digby, Black Pepper General Manager. “It’s a great honour to be
responsible for recognizing the amazing people and sharing their stories with the world in hope that we can inspire
acts of love, generosity and kindness.” Black Pepper will be awarding Australia’s Kindest Person with a cash prize
of $2,000, and the nominator (提名者) will also receive prizes.
It was reported that Rose Darling from Port Adelaide, South Australia, was the winner of the 2023 World
Kindness Day. Rose Darling is the co-founder of Community Help and Togetherness (CHATS). This organization
provides food, groceries, clothing and necessary household items for those in need. She said that she was very pleased
to be able to bring changes to the lives of many people in the local community and to be recognized by Black
Pepper.
Does someone in your life come to mind? Perhaps a mother, daughter, sister or special friend who deserves a
round of applause? Maybe it’s you? Whoever it is, now is the time to share their stories of kindness with the world.28. Which aspect of World Kindness Day is paragraph l mainly about?
A. Its origin. B. Its popularity. C. Its principle. D. Its authority.
29. What does Rachel Digby think of organizing the event?
A. It’s complex. B. It’s highly priced.
C. It’s time-consuming. D. It’s socially significant.
30. Why was Rose Darling named as the winner?
A. She inspired others to act with love.
B. She shared the kindest stories with others.
C. Her kindness made a difference to her community.
D. Her organization made contributions to Black Pepper.
31. In which section of a website can this article be found?
A. Culture. B. Education. C. Fashion. D. Art.
D
Whether your garden is below a city window or in a big backyard, getting kids involved in, tending plants can
be a powerful teaching tool for subjects like science, math, and reading. But the art of growing things can also develop
important life skills in children.
Being patient is something many children struggle with, but also helps a kid stay calm in stressful situations.
Life is a mixture of immediate and delayed satisfaction, so children benefit from learning both. Good things come at
the end of a growing season — like yummy fruit or pretty flowers — but kids have to wait for them. For longer-
growth plants, kids can create a garden journal to document the progress of their young plants with words, drawings, or
photos.
Additionally, working in a garden helps children experience various sounds, smells, and sights. The various
sense experiences — the feel and smell of dirt, the sound and sight of water — help them focus on the moment and
bring calm to them. At that moment, “they realize they have the power to control their big feelings and thoughts,”
says child therapist Jennifer Couture. More importantly, parents should encourage kids to zone out while they’re
doing a task again and again such as watering or digging. This can allow their minds to go freely, helping them find
a moment of peace.
When kids realize that a garden is full of living things that need their help to survive, they can develop a sense
of caring and thoughtfulness. Sometimes, a garden can also grow kindness, responsibility, and other values in kids.
32. How can kids learn to be patient from gardening?
A. By reading a garden journal. B. By appreciating pretty things.
C. By struggling with difficulties. D. By waiting for good things for long.33. What can calm kids while they are gardening?
A. Good self-control ability. B. Friendly family members.
C. Various sense experiences. D. Beautiful natural environment.
34. What does the phrase “zone out” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Relax. B. Persist. C. Participate. D. Focus.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The Process of Kids’ Gardening B. Ways to Grow Kids’ Learning Skills
C. Kids’ Awareness of Protecting the Nature D. Gardening for Kids: More Than What You Know
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
答案写在答题卡上。
How to Improve Your Running
Running is a great form of exercise that offers physical and mental benefits. ____36____ you may need to pay
attention to the following details.
Gradual increase in mileage (里程)
____37____ If you run 3 kilometers three times a week, you might increase it to 3.5 kilometers the next week.
But make sure not to overdo it to avoid injury.
Strength training
A strong core helps with balance during running. Exercises like planks, sit-ups, and Russian twists can strengthen
your stomach and back muscles. ____38____ You can improve it by finding a hill to run up with a good effort, and then
walk or jog back down to recover.
Proper eating
Have a balanced diet. Eat seasonal fruit and vegetables, and beef and chicken which contain proteins (蛋白质)
for muscle repair. Additionally, drink plenty of water throughout the day, especially before, during, and after your
runs. ____39____ such as a banana or a handful of nuts.
Recovery and rest
You can do light activities like walking, yoga, or gentle stretching after running. Also, make sure to get enough
rest. Most adults need 7~9 hours of sleep per night, ____40____
A. Have a small snack before running,
B. It will help your muscles recover soon.
C. Slowly add distance to your runs each week.
D. To truly improve your running performance,E. If you feel content with your running records,
F. Also leg strength is important for running power.
.
G Your body needs regular exercise on a daily basis.
第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was 8 years old, my family received a dinner invitation from the Thompsons, a wealthy and highly
respected family in our neighbourhood. I heard that their family ____41____ traditional table manners, and their
home was set with lots of fancy and ____42____ chinaware that I had never seen before. I was really ____43____.
But as the day was approaching, I suddenly began to become anxious. I even thought it was like an
____44____. I turned to my mom and said, “Mom, I fear being ____45____ if I have improper table manners.
What if I use the wrong fork or something?” In the following days, Mom, though not an expert, tried her best to
____46____ me step by step.
The dinner started with a soup. I felt quite ____47____ as I handled the first course without mistakes. However,
the second course ____48____ me. I was not skilled at cutting chicken with a knife. My nervousness caused me to
____49____ knock over a china cup. I became so embarrassed and tried to quickly set things right.
Mrs. Thompson noticed what had happened to me and said in a (n)____50____ voice, “It’s quite alright, dear.
We all have moments when we need to ____51____. Just take your time and enjoy the ____52____.” I took a deep
breath and nodded, getting ____53____ from her words. I felt at home then.
The dinner ____54____ with a sweet chocolate cake. It tasted even sweeter. This evening brought me enjoyment
and ____55____ from others, and it became a sweet memory.
41. A. taught B. followed C. avoided D. designed
42. A. costly B. plain C. familiar D. suitable
43. A. confident B. anxious C. curious D. shocked
44. A. inspiration B. error C. encounter D. adventure
45. A. turned down B. laughed at C. picked out D. forgotten about
46. A. limit B. push C. resist D. guide
47. A. relaxed B. nervous C. awkward D. thirsty
48. A. supported B. challenged C. reminded D. surprised
49. A. regularly B. specially C. silently D. accidentally
50. A. serious B. exciting C. low D. formal
51. A. defend B. adapt C. refuse D. miss52. A. meal B. dessert C. family D. style
53. A. pressure B. opportunity C. praise D. comfort
54. A. mixed B. dealt C. ended D. met
55. A. respect B. interest C. identity D. tradition
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
On December 4,2024, the Spring Festival, known ____56____ the most significant traditional Chinese
festival, ____57____ (add) to UNESCO's List of Intangible Cultural Heritage.
During the Spring Festival, the lively atmosphere is filled with a variety of traditional customs, such as pasting
couplets, ____58____ (set) off fireworks, and giving lucky money. The most important part of the festival is the
family reunion dinner on New Year's Eve. People working far away will travel thousands of miles ____59____ (return)
home for the reunion. In addition to these traditional activities, different regions in China have their own unique ways
of celebration as well as ____60____ (decorate). People hang lanterns in the north, while in the south, people like
to go to flower ____61____ (fair).
The Spring Festival symbolizes the Chinese people's hopes for ____62____ better life, family and national
bonds, and harmony with nature. ____63____ (pass) down through generations, it has provided lasting spiritual
strength for the Chinese people.
.
This successful application means that values of Spring Festival will be protected and spread 1
____64____ (global). Its unique charm will attract more people _____65_____ come from different corners of the
world to explore and appreciate Chinese culture.
第四部分写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 Max计划下个月来中国，他对中国美食很感兴趣，请你给他回一封邮件，
内容包括：
（1）表示欢迎；
（2）推荐一道中国美食并说明理由。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为80个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Hi Max,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I spent my childhood in a small town. At that time I was crazy about football as much as all the other boys. I
spent every spare moment kicking a ball around.
Our town’s football team wasn’t anything special. We lacked proper training facilities, and no one really knew
who we were. But none of that mattered to me. My teammates and I were determined. Every day after school, we
gathered to practice, driven by the dream of one day competing in a major tournament (联赛). But so far, we hadn’t
even played a single match against another team.
One day, after practice, I was walking home when something unusual caught my eye. Something red was
swinging on the branches of an old maple tree. Curious, I walked closer and saw it was a bright red balloon.
The balloon still had a long string attached, and at the end of the string, there was a plastic bag. To my surprise, the
bag wasn’t empty. Inside, I found a small piece of paper folded neatly into a square. I unfolded it and discovered a
letter. It read:
Dear Friend,
If you have found this letter, it means my balloon finally popped. I used the balloon to see how far my letter
would travel. I launched it from Orange County on May 1. I’m a super football lover. If you would like to be my
pen-pal, please write back to me. Enclosed is my address.
,
Sincerely
Joe
I couldn’t believe it. Orange County was about twenty miles away, so the balloon had traveled quite a distance.
More excitingly, Joe loved football as well!
注意：
（1）续写词数应为120个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I hurried home to write back to Joe.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
The day when the two teams would meet finally arrived.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
