文档内容
2024 年中考第二次模拟考试（全国通用）
英语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，
用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对
话读两遍。
1．What is the girl going to do?
A．Go swimming. B．Do her homework. C．Have a rest.
2．Where may the dialogue happen?
A．On a bus. B．At the bus stop. C．In a restaurant.
3．What is the girl going to do after school?
A．Watch TV. B．Play basketball. C．Play the piano.
4．How does the girl like the books?
A．Helpful. B．Interesting. C．Educational.
5．What does the man think of the shark in the cartoon?
A．Friendly. B．Clever. C．Funny.
第二节
听下面几段对话。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答
案。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一.段对话，回答第 6至第7两个小题。
6．What are they talking about?
A．Uniforms. B．Food and drink. C．School rules.
7．Who can take Frank out at school if possible?
A．His friend. B．His teacher. C．Nobody.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8．What are the speakers talking about?
A．A running plan. B．A swimming plan. C．A climbing plan.
9．When will they go out?A．On Friday. B．On Saturday. C．On Sunday.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10．What stopped the man falling asleep last night?
A．The smelly bed. B．The small room. C．The noisy street.
11．Which room did the man change at last?
A．503. B．605. C．506.
12．What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers?
A．Doctor and patient. B．Teacher and student. C．Guest and hotel worker.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13．How long will the good weather last?
A．5 days. B．6 days. C．7 days.
14．Where will they take a walk tomorrow?
A．In the Central Park. B．In the City Park. C．In the River Park.
15．Why can’t Annie join them?
A．She has a fever.
B．She doesn’t like outdoor activities.
C．She has to prepare for her exam.
第三节
听下面一段短文。每段独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。短文
读两遍。
16．Why didn’t the writer want to get up in the morning?
A．Because she was too sleepy.
B．Because she was ill.
C．Because she worried about going to the new school.
17．What was the writer surprised about at the new school?
A．The unkind teacher. B．The friendly classmates. C．The beautiful new school.
18．Which book was the same as the writer learned at the old school?
A．The reading book. B．The math book. C．The science book.
19．How did the writer feel at the end of the day?
A．She felt happy. B．She felt lonely. C．She felt worried.
20．Which of the following is true?
A．The writer didn’t change schools before.
B．The writer ate lunch alone at the new school.
C．It was November when the writer went to the new school.
二、单项选择(10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
21．—Dancing is too difficult for me. So I don’t want to join the dance competition.—Believe in yourself! In the face of challenges, we should have enough ________.
A．energy B．development C．progress D．confidence
22．Mr. Wang is very strict with _______ but we see him as a friend of ___________.
A．us; our B．us; ours C．we; our D．we; ours
23．Beverly is often too full to eat anything at mealtimes because she eats lots of snacks ________ meals.
A．after B．between C．during D．from
24．—Who do you think will win the singing competition, Susan or Helen?
—Susan. She sings ______. She has a nice special voice.
A．better B．best C．worse D．worst
25．You’ll miss the beginning of the movie, ________ you can reach the cinema before eight.
A．unless B．though C．because D．since
26．Many athletes ________ hard these days. They hope to realize their dreams at the coming of the Paris
Olympics this summer.
A．worked B．would work C．will work D．are working
27．Our school ________ a lot since last year. Now it has become one of the most beautiful schools in Hefei.
A．changes B．changed C．has changed D．had changed
28．—It takes me half an hour ________ playing the piano. How about you?
—I usually spend 20 minutes on it.
A．practiced B．practice C．to practice D．practicing
29．—Could you tell me ________ they will have their summer camping?
—Maybe somewhere funny.
A．when B．where C．whether D．how
30．—Mum, I am afraid I can’t pass tomorrow’s Pipa test.
—________. After all, it takes time to learn something new.
A．That’s true B．I hope so C．Take it easy D．Many thanks
三、完形填空(10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
Ever since “Mother Nature” gave me life, I expected to grow tall and big.
As a young 31 , I was well protected in the forest. I used to have a good time with my friends under
the blue sky and along the river. Our only purpose was to stand high. My pal, Tim often said, “All I ask for is to be
32 the whole day.”
More than 300 days passed and we grew straight. Until one day, our 33 birthday, people came,
moved us from the 34 and put us on their trucks. “I don’t want to go!” Tim cried.
After a long journey, we arrived in a completely different place with nothing green. Here we were planted in a
line. Because the wind blew strongly, I could not even open my eyes to see Tim 35 beside me. So we
needed enough 36 to grow thicker and higher to stop the wind.
As time went by, we finally 37 much stronger. I could keep my eyes open in the wind! I even found
the blue sky was back!This was no longer a no-man’s-land, and hundreds of visitors came here. A man took a picture of us with his
38 , “Thank you. We can enjoy clear days without worrying about sand storms.” A young girl jumping up and
down 39 and hugged me. “Thank you,” she said, “It’s you that have turned the desert into a green land!”
Tim and I smiled at each other, feeling 40 . The sun was shining brightly in the bluer sky.
31．A．tree B．fish C．girl D．boy
32．A．smart B．happy C．busy D．thin
33．A．first B．second C．third D．fourth
34．A．beach B．lake C．house D．earth
35．A．clearly B．greatly C．kindly D．widely
36．A．desert B．wind C．sand D．water
37．A．became B．smelt C．sounded D．remained
38．A．radio B．keyboard C．backpack D．camera
39．A．came back B．came over C．came out D．came from
40．A．tired B．bored C．proud D．surprised
四、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
Today, AI robots play an important role in people’s daily lives. These robots work in many areas to help
people.
I’m a teaching robot. My job is to spend time with children and teach them. I look like a human
being because I want to get close to children. Turning around and avoiding obstacles (避障) are both
easy for me. I can sing and dance. I can also know the needs of children by hearing their words and
teach them knowledge on different subjects.
I’m a medical robot. People often use me in the operating room (手术室). I can show some
angles of view (视角) and can also move to some hard-to-get-to places in the human body. I can
help doctors work better during operations.
I’m a security (安全) robot. I can recognize (识别) strangers and then call the police when
strangers break into a house, I always keep my eyes on smoke in the house and can let people know
if there is a fire. If the house catches fire, I can also help people put it out.
I’m a delivery (运送) robot. My job is to help stores and restaurants do delivery jobs. I’m very
smart, so I can avoid obstacles and people on the road with 12 cameras as my eyes. And I can also
protect the goods inside me from getting lost because only when I arrive can people open me up.
根据表格内容，选择正确答案。
41．How many kinds of robots are mentioned in the text?
A．Three. B．Four. C．Five. D．Six.42．Who is the teaching robot designed for?
A．Doctors. B．Children. C．Teachers. D．Strangers.
43．What can a medical robot do?
A．It can do delivery jobs. B．It can recognize strangers.
C．It can help doctors work better. D．It can teach children knowledge.
44．According to the text, which kinds of robots can avoid obstacles?
A．The teaching robot and the delivery robot.
B．The medical robot and the security robot.
C．The security robot and the delivery robot.
D．The teaching robot and the medical robot.
45．Which of the following is TRUE?
A．The teaching robot can only dance and sing.
B．The medical robot has 12 cameras as its eyes.
C．The security robot has more than one function.
D．Everyone can open up the delivery robot at any time.
B
As a teenager, school was difficult for me. I had a kind of attention disorder, which means I couldn’t direct my
attention to what I was doing. So when everyone else in the class was centering their attention on tasks, I could not.
In my first reading class, Mrs. Smith asked us to read a story and then write on it, all finished in 45 minutes. I
immediately put up my hand and said, “Mrs. Smith, you see, the doctor said I have attention problems. I might not
be able to finish the task.”
She looked down at me through her glasses, saying, “You are not different from your classmates, young man.”
With her encouragement, I tried. But I didn’t finish the reading when the bell rang. I had to take it home.
In the quietness of my bedroom, the story suddenly all became clear to me. It was about a blind person, Louis
Braille. He Lived in a time when the blind couldn’t get much education. But Louis didn’t give up. Instead, he
invented a reading system of raised dots(点), which opened up a whole new world of knowledge to the blind.
Wasn’t I the “blind” in my class, being made to learn like the “sighted” students? With thoughts running
through my head, I found myself deeply attracted in reading and writing. I completed the task in less than 40
minutes. I realized that I was not different from others. I just needed a quieter place. If Louis could find his way out
of his problem, why should I ever give up?
I didn’t expect anything when I handed in my paper to Mrs. Smith, so it was quite a surprise when it came
back to me the next day with an “A” on it. At the bottom of the paper were these words, “See what you can do
when you keep trying?”
根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。
46．Why was school difficult for the writer?
A．Because he didn’t like the teacher.
B．Because he got a kind of attention disorder.C．Because the tasks were too boring to him.
D．Because his classmates talked with him in class.
47．What did Mrs. Smith’s words in Paragraph 3 show?
A．She encouraged him. B．She laughed at him.
C．She felt sorry for him, D．She was pleased with him.
48．What does the underlined word “sighted” in Paragraph 5 mean?
A．Able to listen. B．Able to speak. C．Able to run. D．Able to see.
49．What is the correct order of the following events?
① Mrs. Smith asked us to read a story and then write on it.
② I read the story again in my quiet room.
③ Mrs. Smith gave an “A” on my paper.
④ I had a kind of attention disorder.
A．④①③② B．④①②③ C．①④②③ D．①④②③
50．What can we learn from the passage?
A．Never stop reading. B．How to be a great teacher.
C．Never give up easily. D．How to learn as a blind.
C
When babies are hungry, they will cry to show their feelings. When children and grown-ups are sad, they may
cry to feel better. However, some people think crying is a bad thing because it may be bad for their health. In fact, it
is healthy to have some tears. According to the studies, some health problems have something to do with not crying
enough. Sometimes people need to cry more because it helps them to get well.
Different cultures have different ideas about crying. The people in Indonesia think crying—unless done by a
person who has lost a close friend—is unhealthy, causing health problems. In some other cultures, people cry
together usually when they are afraid of something and in times of sadness. Here are two interesting studies about
crying.
A study of 5,000 people in 35 countries made by Professor (教授) Ad Vingerhoets found that women usually
cried between 30 and 64 times a year, and men usually cried 6 to 17 times a year. Vingerhoets thinks that women’s
higher prolactin levels (催乳素水平) may cause women to cry more. Prolactin levels are higher in pregnancy (怀
孕) .
According to another study, when 150 women were watching the film Steel Magnolias, scientists found 22
percent of them cried and the others didn’t. Those who cried felt more sadness for a long time. The study said
crying can make people sadder, and a took people longer to get well.
Crying may make people feel better only if it helps with their problems. Studies show comfort from one
person does make people feel that crying is a good idea. So next time you don’t feel good, you can talk with your
friend and cry out to make yourself feel better!
51．What’s the theme of the passage?
A．Customs. B．Environment. C．Health. D．Family.52．Which opinion does the writer probably agree to according to Paragraph 1?
A．Crying does harm to people. B．People shouldn’t often cry.
C．Crying is good for people. D．People don’t like crying.
53．What does the third paragraph mainly talk about?
A．The result of the study made by Ad Vingerhoets.
B．The process of the study made by Ad Vingerhoets.
C．The time of the study made by Ad Vingerhoets.
D．The place of the study made by Ad Vingerhoets.
54．How many women didn’t cry in the study while watching the film Steel Magnolias?
A．17. B．33. C．64. D．117.
55．What’s the best structure of this passage?
A．①②③/④/⑤ B．①/②/③④/⑤ C．①/②③④/⑤ D．①/②③/④/⑤
D
Forget about “military-style (军事型) travel” during which people want to visit as many places as possible by
using the least time. A kind of more relaxing travel way named “Citywalk” is becoming popular in China. It is
about traveling around a city on foot. Such walks usually avoid famous places of interest and shopping centers.
They take you to places where you can know the people’s lives well, help you eat at small but great restaurants and
let you better learn about the history and culture of the city.
Nancy and her husband Dave moved from Beijing to Shanghai some days ago. They found new jobs there.
Nancy is an art teacher and Dave is a doctor now. They got to know about Citywalk online. Then they chose a
popular Citywalk route (路线) in Shanghai. They not only enjoyed the beauty of the streets, but also visited some
small shops. ______
Citywalk not only gives young people a way to learn about a city but also gives them a new scene, where
people who share the same interests and ideas can easily make friends.
Some places, such as Beijing and Shandong, have made Citywalk part of their plans to help with their cultural
tourism. Shanghai has planned Citywalk routes using bus routes to help visitors reach more far places.
Many people say Citywalk is a good way to have a talk with the city they live in. Zhang Zhi, a travel guide
from Beijing, said tourists now like personal travel services better. He thinks Citywalk makes travelers better
choose the trips they want according to their interests and needs, so it’s sure to be more popular among travelers in
the near future.
56．What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 1 refer to?
A．People. B．Good restaurants.
C．Such Citywalks. D．Shop centers.
57．Choose the best sentence to fill in the blank “_______” in Paragraph 2.
A．They loved this trip a lot. B．They never took such a trip.
C．They hated to join this trip. D．They planned to give up this trip.
58．Which paragraph mainly talks about the advantages of a Citywalk?A．Paragraph 2. B．Paragraph 3. C．Paragraph 4. D．Paragraph 5.
59．Match the person with his or her job and then choose the right order.
①Nancy a. a travel guide.
②Dave b. a doctor.
③Zhang Zhi c. an art teacher.
A．①-b, ②-a, ③-c B．①-c, ②-a, ③-b
C．①-c, ②-b, ③-a D．①-a, ②-b, ③-c
60．How does Zhang Zhi feel about the future of Citywalk?
A．He feels worried about it. B．He isn’t sure about it.
C．He doesn’t care about it. D．He is hopeful about it.
五、短文填空(10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。
The sweetest memory of my childhood is about a round table.
When I was still, little, my whole family would get together on different traditional 61 (festival).
When I got a bit older, my aunt brought back her boyfriend and my grandma 62 (glad) added another seat
to the round table. It seemed a little more crowded, but we all felt much 63 (close) to each other. When I
was twelve, my grandpa passed away. That made us 64 (feel) sad. However, when the whole family 65
(get) together once again, we felt like that he had never left us.
We all have a table like this in 66 (we) homes. It is a sign of reunion (团聚) of our family showing our
feelings. 67 the reason why we come together may be different, the feelings behind it are the same. Usually
different cultures 68 (accept) by us around the table. What’s more, we express the love not only for our
family, but also for 69 community, our nation and even the whole world.
The history of our nation has been the stories of looking for or running to the round table that we belong to.
The round table has been a symbol 70 the Chinese feelings. It was, it is and will always be.
六、阅读短文，回答问题。(5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
This spring, the most eye-catching movie might be YOLO (《热辣滚烫》). By March 18, it had made
around 3.5 billion yuan at the box office, reported Paper.
Directed by 41-year-old Jia Ling, the movie tells the story of a woman tired of the world, finding herself and
learning to love life through boxing (拳击). The name of YOLO is short for the movie’s main idea— you only live
once.
Jia Ling has tried many different roles in her life, including crosstalk (相声) and sketch (小品) performer,
variety show (综艺节目) guest and actress. The movie Hi, Mom (《你好，李焕英》) in 2019 is the first one Jia
directed in her life.
Jia didn’t study directing at university. It makes her feel freer in film making because she doesn’t need to
follow a fixed style. To everyone’s surprise, Hi, Mom made her the world’s highest-grossing (票房最高的)
woman director before 2023.
Before making YOLO, Jia was often seen as an overweight comedian (喜剧演员). She often made jokes aboutherself to make people laugh. For this movie, Jia lost more than 50 kg which made it hard to imagine that this is the
same Jia we once knew. Some people online said even her voice became softer, and they called this a “rebirth” for
Jia. She has proved through her actions that if you want to be successful, you need to try your best.
In Jia’s eyes, her change in identity (身份) and look is her way of saying true to herself. “It’s hard to predict
one’s life. I’m just following my heart but not looking for changes in purpose. Movies are now the best way to
show myself, so I put all my energy into them.” Jia told Xinhua.
“In fact, Jia didn’t change. She’s just being more herself. She shows us through her actions.” said talk show
host Chen Luyu.
71．How old is Jia Ling?
72．When did Jia Ling become a director for the first time?
73．Was Jia Ling the world’s highest-grossing director before 2023?
74．How much weight did Jia lose for the movie?
75．What can you learn from Jia Ling or her movie YOLO?
七、书面表达(共20分)
哈尔滨将在2025年举办亚洲冬季运动会(Harbin 2025 Asian Winter Games)，为此《新晚报》 向全市招
募亚冬会志愿者。假如你是李雷，得知此消息后打算参加选拔环节，请你给报社写一封相应的英文自荐信。
写作要点：
1. 表达自己想成为志愿者的迫切心情。
2. 自己的优势：
（1）性格开朗，善于与人交流
（2）英语口语好
（3）热心(warmhearted)并乐于助人
3. 说说在亚冬会期间你打算如何成为一名优秀的志愿者。
Dear editor,
I know some volunteers are needed.
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Best wishes!
Li Lei
