1
淮安市高中校协作体2025-2026 学年度第一学期高一年级期中联考
英语试卷
时间：120 分钟 满分：150 分
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节：听对话(共5 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5 分)
听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，
并标在试卷的相应位置，听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题
将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读一遍。
1. What is the man’s favorite food?
A. Beef.
B. Pork.
C. Fish.
2. How does the woman go to the cinema today?
A. By bike.
B. By bus.
C. By subway.
3. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Smoke somewhere else. B. Leave the smoking area. C. Stop smoking right away.
4. What is Susan Gray?
A. A writer.
B. A teacher.
C. A reporter.
5. What does the man mean?
A. The work is easy for him. B. He is hungry now. C. He needs a lot of help.
第二节（共15 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分22.5 分）
听下面5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5 秒钟的作
答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料,回答第6、7 题。
6. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a supermarket.
B. In a bank.
C. In an office.
7. Why does the man come to this place?
A. To cash the cheques.
B. To get some money.
C. To know the exchange rate..
听第7 段材料，回答第8、9 题。
8. What is the man doing?
A. Trying to find a book. B. Looking for a hotel. C. Planning a tour.
9. What does the woman say about the Island of Pearl?
A. The hotels there are nice. B. It is only 45 kilometers away. It is her hometown.
听第8 段材料，回答第10 至12 题。
10. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Old fashions.
B. Old days.
C. Old news.
11. What do the speakers think of what they looked like in the photo?
A. Young.
B. Fashionable.
C. Unbelievable.
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
2
12. Where does the man work?
A. In a bank.
B. In a factory.
C. In a university.
听第9 段材料，回答第13 至16 题。
13. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Coach and player.
B. Teacher and student.
C. Classmates.
14. How did the man react when he saw the woman dancing?
A. Annoyed.
B. Surprised.
C. Inspired.
15. What does the man do for exercise?
A. Ride a bicycle.
B. Play soccer.
C. Go running.
16. What will the speakers do next?
A. Study for a test. B. Go to the gym together. C. Show each other their moves.
听第10 段材料，回答第17 至20 题。
17. Where do children play games after school?
A. At school.
B. At home.
C. At street corners.
18. What do old people do in the evening?
A. Watch TV at home.
B. Go to car races.
C. Read newspapers.
19. What may young people do at the weekends?
A. Go fishing.
B. Go swimming.
C. Do gardening.
20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?
A. Australians’ activities during the holidays.
B. The life of Australian students.
C. Australians’ different ways of enjoyment.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50 分)
第一节（共15 小题;每小题2.5 分，满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Quest to Save a Rain Forest Species
By Sandra Markle. Ages 8 to 10.
Woolly Monkeys spend most of their time high up in 150-foot-tall trees. That makes them difficult
animals to count and to study. But cameras have provided valuable information and taken, as this book shows,
amazing pictures. Experts now believe that Peru’s lowland monkeys and the waste they produce are necessary
to the survival of the rain forest.
Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild
By Catherine Thimmesh. Ages 10 to 12.
The giant panda is much-beloved in China, but in the past 40 years, at least half of its habitat has been
destroyed. Camp Panda tells about efforts to reintroduce the giant pandas into the wild so that they might
have a future. As part of the efforts, people wear panda costumes that smell like pandas while weighing and
measuring the young pandas. They aren’t supposed to get used to seeing and being around people, because
people could pose a threat to them in the wild.
Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel
By Carl Safina. Ages 10 and older.
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
3
Carl Safina studied elephants in an African national park and killer whales off the coast of Washington
state. He learned about their strong family bonds , the surprising ways they communicate and how they play
and hang out with one another. This book makes a strong case for protecting the ability of these animals to
live freely.
Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction
By Nancy F. Castaldo. Ages 10 and older.
This book focuses on seven groups of animals—including whooping cranes, California condors and
American alligators—that were brought back to healthy numbers by a lot of efforts. As she celebrates these
successes, Nancy F. Castaldo also makes clear that dangers, such as the effects of climate change, still cloud
（笼罩）the future of these creatures.
21. Which is the most suitable book for readers below 10?
A. The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Quest to Save a Rain Forest Species.
B. Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel.
C. Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction.
D. Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild.
22. Why do people wear panda costumes?
A. To attract visitors. B. To take photos of pandas in the wild.
C. To make pandas feel safe. D. To celebrate the increasing numbers of pandas.
23. What do these four books focus on?
A. Climate change. B. Rain forests. C. Animal rights. D. Animal protection
B
Dear Daisy,
Phew! I’m so glad the day is over. I’m really tired, but my first day at school went well.
First of all, we met outside the school building. I was very anxious (焦虑的) because my primary school
only had 300 students but in the middle school there are about 1,300. What a difference! The older students
are really big. I felt so small waiting there in front of the school.
The head teacher came out and told us to go into the school hall. Then he called our names out to tell us
which class we were in. My class teacher is called Mrs Black. She took us to our classroom. It’s on the 5th
floor. We aren’t allowed to use the lift! I couldn’t believe it.
We spent all morning with Mrs Black looking at our timetables. Everyone in the school had a different
timetable. I’m worried that I’ll forget my timetable and go to the wrong room.
Lunchtime was OK. I had salad, fish and fruit, which were quite delicious and healthy, and then I went
to play football with some of the other boys. They were all friendly and I don’t think it will take me long to
make friends.
After lunch we started lessons. I had maths and then history, where we started to learn about ancient
Greece (希腊) . That looked interesting. I have to do some homework tonight to find out how the ancient
Greek people lived, so I’m going to do an Internet search and look it up in the library.
So far so good. I am quite looking forward to tomorrow, even though I’ve got science. I hate science!
Yours,
Jason
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
4
24. How did the author feel about the size of the new school?
A. Excited.
B. Nervous.
C. Awful.
D. Curious.
25. What made the author feel difficult?
A. Finding the classroom.
B. Making new friends.
C. Remembering the timetable.
D. Having no snacks.
26. Why did the author consider the lunch in school good?
A. It was cheap.
B. It provided healthy food choices.
C. It was totally safe.
D. It tasted like homemade food.
27. What topic did the author express interest in researching after school?
A. The application of maths.
B. The national history.
C. The importance of first impression.
D. Daily life in ancient Greece.
C
We live in a town with three beaches. There are two parks less than 10 minutes’ walk from home where
neighbourhood children gather to play. However, what my children want to do after school is pick up a
screen—any screen—and stare at it for hours. They are not alone. Today’s children spend an average of four
and a half hours a day looking at screens, which includes watching television and surfing the Internet.
In the past few years, an increasing number of people and organizations have begun coming up with
plans to address this trend. A couple of years ago, film-maker David Bond realized that his children, then
aged five and three, were attached to screens to the point where he was able to say “chocolate” into his
three-year-old son’s ear without getting a response. He realized that something needed to change, and, being a
London media worker, appointed himself “marketing director for Nature”. He documented his journey as he
set about treating nature as a brand to be marketed to young people. The result was Project Wild Thing, a film
which charts the birth of the “Wild Network”, a group of organizations with the common goal of getting
children out into nature.
“Just five more minutes outdoors can make a difference,” David Bond says. “There is a lot of really
interesting evidence which seems to be suggesting that if children are inspired up to the age of seven, then
being outdoors will be a habit for life.” His own children have got into the habit of playing outside now: “We
just send them out into the garden and tell them not to come back in for a while.”
Summer is upon us. There is an amazing world out there, and it needs our children as much as they need
it. Let us get them out and let them play.
28．What is the problem with the author’s children?
A．They often annoy the neighbors.
B．They are tired of doing their homework.
C．They have no friends to play with.
D．They stay in front of screens for too long.
29．How did David Bond attract children to get out into nature?
A．By organizing outdoor activities.
B．By making a documentary film.
C．By advertising in London media.
D．By creating a network of friends.
30．Which of the following can replace the underlined word “charts” in paragraph 2?
A．targets
B．performs
C．records
D．concerns
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
5
31．What can be a suitable title for the text?
A．Let Children Have Fun
B．Young Children Need More Free Time
C．Market Nature to Children
D．David Bond: A Role Model for Children
D
A new trend called “praise groups” or “in-need-of-praise” chat groups has become popular on
Chinese social media. In Chinese culture, where modesty （谦逊） is valued, openly seeking and giving
praise is uncommon. These chat groups provide a platform for people to receive compliments （赞扬）
and encouragement, which are often lacking in their daily lives.
To join a praise group, users can pay a fee on e-commerce sites, starting at 50 yuan for five minutes
of compliments. The group members will then show the person with praises and kind words. The
compliments can be designed for a friend or loved one as well. Participants have found that being
praised by strangers can help lift their spirits and improve their self-confidence.
For example, Meng Zha, a student at Shanghai’s Tongji University, tried the service and found it
amusing and uplifting. She received compliments on her appearance and even quotes （引用） from
popular songs. Ms Meng couldn’t help but laugh at the compliments and expressed her desire to post
such high-quality praises in the future.
Praise groups have appeared as a way for people in China to seek and receive compliments and
encouragement that may be lacking in their daily lives. It provides a positive and uplifting experience for
participants, improving a sense of happiness and self-worth.
Those who support the groups, see them as an antidote to extremely bad moods （情绪） which are
often associated with things happening on the Internet.“At first, the purpose of this group is to make us
learn to praise others and accept others’ praises confidently. Here we can drop everything, and use our
heart to praise and support others,” one member said. But the life journey is long and there are some
unexpected situations that we can only count on ourselves to face when there is no one out there to offer
help.
32．What is the purpose of praise groups?
A．To make praise popular.
B．To have everyone supported.
C．To share common interests.
D．To give people hope and happiness.
33．What can we learn about Meng Zha in paragraph 3?
A．She was not strong enough. B．She was under working stress.
C．She was satisfied with the service. D．She was a gifted singer in her area.
34．What does the underlined word “antidote” mean in the last paragraph?
A．A kind of medicine.
B．A way of making new friends.
C．A method of being confident.
D．The wisdom of solving problems.
35．What is the author’s attitude to praise groups?
A．Critical.
B．Objective.
C．Supportive. D．Indifferent.
第二节（共5 小题；每小题2.5 分，满分12.5 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How Technology Shapes Our Daily Life
Technology has become an inseparable part of our lives. From waking up to alarm clocks to sleeping
with smartwatches tracking our sleep patterns, it influences almost everything we do. But how exactly does it
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
6
affect our daily life? ____36____.
Communication revolution
Gone are the days of waiting for letters. With smartphones and social media, we can instantly connect
with anyone globally. ____37____. However, experts suggest balancing online interactions with face-to-face
conversations to maintain healthy relationships.
Education evolution
Online learning platforms and digital tools like language apps make education accessible anytime.
____38____. For example, virtual reality (VR) can transport students to historical sites, making lessons
attractive. Yet, self-discipline remains crucial for effective e-learning.
____39____
Smart home devices, such as voice-controlled assistants and automatic lights, simplify household tasks.
Meanwhile, wearable tech like fitness bands encourages healthier lifestyles by monitoring steps and heart
rates.
Challenges to consider
Despite its benefits, overreliance on technology may lead to reduced physical activity or privacy
concerns. ____40____. Setting screen time limits and regularly unplugging can help achieve a healthier
tech-life balance.
A. Smart homes and health.
B. Housework simplification.
C. Let’s explore some key aspects.
D. Technology also changes how students learn.
E. Traditional classrooms are still irreplaceable.
F. Therefore, managing technology use is essential.
G. This instant connection has transformed how we stay in touch.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30 分）
第一节 (共15 小题;每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One day, an old postman knocked on the door of a house and said loudly, “Take the letter.” A little girl
_____41_____ “Coming! Please wait!” But _____42_____ after 10 minutes, nobody came. The postman was
_____43_____. He was about to shout when the door opened. He was _____44_____ to see that before him
was a girl who had no _____45_____. The postman quietly gave the registered letter, took her _____46_____
and left. From then on, the postman would wait _____47_____ at the door if any mail came. Little by little,
interaction and closeness _____48_____ between them.
The girl noticed that the postman always came with no shoes. On a _____49_____ day, after a delivery
to the girl, his ______50______ were left on the wet soil. The girl took down the _______51_______ of his
feet. When the postman came for another delivery, the girl handed him a box as a gift. The postman hesitated
(迟疑) and said, “How can I ______52______ a gift from you?” The little girl insisted, saying, “Please don’t
______53______ it or I’ll feel sad.”
Back home, opening the box, the postman saw a pair of ______54______ in it. He couldn’t believe that
little girl was so ______55______ about him. “She saw me barefoot (光脚) and gave me a pair of shoes, but
how will I be able to give her feet?” He cried.
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
7
41. A. answered
B. greeted
C. laughed
D. contacted
42. A. right
B. shortly
C. even
D. still
43. A. sharp
B. angry
C. awkward
D. wicked
44. A. shocked
B. intelligent
C. odd
D. positive
45. A. fingers
B. hands
C. feet
D. arms
46. A. mail
B. poster
C. alarm
D. signature
47. A. anxiously
B. patiently
C. sadly
D. quietly
48. A. grew
B. changed
C. applied
D. investigated
49. A. snowy
B. windy
C. rainy
D. sunny
50. A. packages
B. clothes
C. footprints
D. keys
51. A. picture
B. size
C. facility
D. sight
52. A. panic
B. burn
C. select
D. accept
53. A. break
B. refuse
C. donate
D. waste
54. A. shoes
B. gloves
C. socks
D. glasses
55. A. specific
B. organized
C. serious
D. concerned
第二节(共10 小题；每小题1．5 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
At the 2025 CCTV Spring Festival Gala (春晚), 16 humanoid (类人的) robots in bright flower jackets,
performed the 56 (tradition) yangge. Their creator, Wang Xingxing, quickly became famous.
Wang, a 35-year-old from Ningbo, had 57 unusual school life. He found English very hard, so
his grades were often low, 58 he was excellent at physics. When classmates studied for exams, he
was busy 59 (study) the old electronics (电子器件). At 19, he used cheap parts costing only 200
yuan to build his 60 (one) walking robot. This showed his special talent. Later in college, he
created XDog, a low-cost four-legged robot that brought him awards and new chances.
In 2016, he 61 (start) Unitree Robotics（宇树科技） to make robots less expensive. By 2025,
his H1 humanoid robots (price:650,000 yuan) became famous because 62 their amazing Spring
Festival Gala show. Mixing old Chinese dances with new tech, they made everyone 63 (surprise)
and became popular online.
At the important China Private Entrepreneurs Forum (民营企业家座谈会) in February 2025, Wang—the
64 (young) person there--sat with famous business leaders (领袖) like Ren Zhengfei and Lei Jun.
Though he wasn’t good at all subjects, Wang never gave up on robots. His 65 (propose) to
young people: “Don’t let your weak points stop you. Keep trying!” His story shows you don’t need to be
perfect in everything—just pay attention to what you love.
第四部分 课本基础语言知识运用
第一节、在空白处填入适当的单词或用括号内单词的适当形式填空。（每小题1 分，满分10 分）
66. As a result of your action, your dream will come true. ( hope ) , you will live a happy life.
67 You need to make a continuous effort (train) your mind and develop your character.
68 I enjoyed most of the classes, but some of them were quite ( challenge).
69. Her doctor says that she will make a full (recover) in a day or two.
70. The good news is this stormy period will not last.
71. We were all so proud Mama”s Bank Account.
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
8
72. One of the reasons people fail to get a good night” sleep is pressure from school or work.
73. However, for those are dangerously overweight, it is very important that they try
to lose weight properly.
74. These thoughts can have a negative effect people of any shape or size, both male
and female, and it is important to guard against the causes behind them.
75. We often find easier to recognize other people’s weaknesses than our own.
第二节、根据所给中文提示完成句子（每空1.5 分，满分15 分）
76. This will you (使-----想起) of what you are working for and keep you focused.
77. Heated (争吵，争论) and cold silences are common between teenagers and their
parents.
78. The stress of this situation is killing me, and I’m at a (失去，丧失)what to do next.
79. In any case, find an (机会 ) to have a full and frank talk with her.
80. Our ( 起初的 ) plan was to see a film at the cinema that afternoon.
81. What”s more, they should keep regular hours and get plenty of exercise to stay （精
力充沛的）and fit.
82. There's no point in comparing you with others all the time. Everyone is (独一无二的，
独特的)
83 Over the next three years, you will discover your (潜力 ) while you develop as a
student and as a person.
84. These (积极乐观的，正面的)thoughts are one reason why you work hard.
85, Living well is the safest and most （有效的）way to get into shape.
第五部分：应用文写作（满分15））
假如你是李华，你的芝加哥笔友Eric 最近来信说他在跟父母交流时总感觉父母不听他的，为此他
很苦恼。请你给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1.表示理解；
2.提出建议；
3.良好祝愿。
注意：1.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2.词数 80 左右。
Dear Eric，
Yours,
Li Hu
{#{QQABCQYEgggIAIAAAAgCAwFiCkEYkBACAIgOxAAYsAAAQRNABAA=}#}
