绝密★考试结束前
2025 学年第二学期温州环大罗山联盟期中联考
高一年级英语学科试题
考生须知：
1. 本卷共10 页满分150 分，考试时间120 分钟。
2. 答题前，在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号并填涂相应数字。
3. 所有答案必须写在答题纸上，写在试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后，只需上交答题纸。
选择题部分
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30 分)
第一节 (共5 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5 分)
听下面5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段录音后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What will Emma do?
A. Visit an art show.
B. Attend an art class.
C. Hand in her artwork.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Get up early.
B. Change her paper topic.
C. Improve her time management.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is Sarah’s attitude toward her volunteer work?
A. Worried.
B. Satisfied.
C. Excited.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a library.
B. In a bookstore.
C. In a classroom.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A piano lesson.
B. A new piano piece.
C. A piano performance.
第二节 (共15 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分22.5 分)
听下面5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5 秒钟的作
答时间。每段录音播放两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. What does Mary suggest Tom do in the national park?
A. Take nature pictures.
B. Do some exercise.
C. Go bike riding.
7. How often does the photo club meet?
A. Once a week.
B. Twice a week.
C. Three times a week.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. Why is the woman reading the book about AI?
A. For classwork.
B. For personal interest.
C. For a research paper.
9. What kind of documentary did the man watch recently?
A. One about AI in medicine.
B. One about AI in education.
C. One about AI in business.
10. What is the woman’s opinion about AI and teachers?
A. AI will replace teachers one day.
B. AI can help teachers with their work.
C. Teachers play some roles AI can’t fill.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. What did the man want to be in his youth?
A. A doctor.
B. A teacher.
C. A manager.
12. What stopped the man from achieving his dream?
A. He didn’t get his parents’ support.
B. He couldn’t afford the required fees.
C. He failed to meet the college requirements.
13. How old is the woman now?
A. 20.
B. 22.
C. 24.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
14. How long did Sophie’s gap year last?
A. Four months.
B. Eight months.
C. Twelve months.
15. What field does Sophie want to work in?
A. Social work.
B. Environmental law.
C. Wildlife protection.
16. What were Sophie’s parents concerned about at first?
A. Her loss of interest in studies.
B. Her safety during the trip.
C. Her money problems.
17. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter.
B. Brother and sister.
C. Old classmates.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
18. What is the project about?
A. Recommending a film.
B. Sharing a valuable lesson.
C. Talking about kids’ films.
19. What lesson did the speaker learn from Inside Out?
A. Accepting troubles is part of growth.
B. Being kind is the most important thing.
C. Facing feelings with kindness is true strength.
20. What was the speaker’s favorite part about Inside Out?
A. Its deep meaning.
B. Its main character.
C. Its imaginative scenes.
第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50 分)
第一节 (共15 小题：每小题2.5 分，满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文。从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
If you’re looking to see “the Greatest Show on Earth”, this journey is for you: Watch the great animal movement
and experience Tanzania’s wildlife in special vehicles ( 车辆). You will never regret this journey as you see the
incredible power and breathtaking wonder of the most beautiful wilderness.
Experience
-A visit to the world’s largest volcano.
-Four public group camps, each accommodating up to 50 people.
-African wildlife observation at a short distance in open animal-viewing vehicles.
-Exploration of three wildlife areas: Tarangire’s baobab landscapes, the wildlife-rich plains of the Serengeti, and
the unique Ngorongoro Crater.
Pricing
-Prices are $1,800 per person for a five-day trip.
-Save 20% on travel from October to December.
Included
-Internal flights.
-Guaranteed window seat.
-All park expenses and government taxes (税).
-Meals can be reserved based on personal needs and preferences.
-All game drives are in a 6-seat vehicle with a pop-up roof for easy game viewing and photography, and an
English-speaking tour guide.
Not included
-International flights and flight taxes.
-All items of a personal nature, e.g. , drinks, tips, laundry, etc.
-Change the destinations at will or cancel the journey halfway.
Don’t miss your chance to witness the greatest wildlife spectacle on Earth. Contact us as soon as possible to
book your place and start your unforgettable Tanzanian adventure!
21. What can a tourist do during the journey?
A. Watch the volcanic eruption.
B. Observe the wild animals closely.
C. Visit an exhibit of wildlife photos.
D. Explore the largest plain in the world.
22. How much should a couple pay for a five-day trip in November?
A. $2,880.
B. $3,600.
C. $14,400.
D. $18,000.
23. Where is this passage most likely taken from?
A. A news report
B. A travel guide
C. A science magazine
D. A travel advertisement
B
Renee Fluker was a full-time social worker for the state of Michigan when one day her teenage son made a
remark that stayed with her. Her son, one of only a few Black students on his Detroit high school golf team, said, “It
would be great if other Black kids learned how to play golf and went on to college.”
The 69-year-old Fluker was inspired by that thought and finally founded the nonprofit she runs today: the College
Career (职业) & Beyond Midnight Golf Program. “Playing golf at night is impossible unless someone shines a light,”
she says. “That’s exactly what we do. We use golf to create possibilities, helping young people see a brighter
future.”
At first she struggled to find students. What finally worked, Fluker says, was offering free pizza at a community
center. Along with their pizza, the students got free golf lessons and listened to talks about college and careers. In
2001 the group had 17 students. Last year,250 seniors from 76 southeast Michigan high schools were selected from
about 2,000 applicants. In recent years, the students have attended special classes at the School at Marygrove. While
volunteers teach the students skills such as writing college applications and filling in job forms, golf lessons are
taught by professionals from the PGA of America, an organization that aims to grow interest and participation in
golf.
So far, more than 130 college students have graduated from the Midnight Golf Program. Fluker says she is
“moved to tears” when she thinks of their success. One early student, for example, grew up in public housing, went
to Howard University, and finally received a Ph.D. in nursing.
Fluker says being around so many young people helps keep her feeling young. Her friends called her “crazy”
for not enjoying her retirement. But because of her efforts, many people have been helped.
24. Why did Fluker start the Midnight Golf Program?
A. Her son’s comments.
B. Her desire for money.
C. Her son’s interest in golf.
D. Her career as a social worker.
25. Which of the following is true according to Para.3?
A. All applicants were admitted into the program.
B. The golf lessons are taught by high school teachers.
C. Fluker first attracted students by offering free golf lessons.
D. Volunteers help students with college and job applications.
26. Which of the following can best describe Fluker?
A. Caring and humorous.
B. Selfless and helpful.
C. Creative and ambitious.
D. Inspiring and youthful.
27. What is a suitable title for the text?
A. Golf: More Than a Game
B. Social Workers: Society’s Light
C. Night Golf, Bright Futures
D. Retire from Work, Not from Life
C
Picture this: you win three tickets to a sold-out concert and excitedly text your friends to see if they would like
to join you. Their reply? “Maybe.” Immediately, your excitement drops, for now you have to wait for their decisions
before you can finalize your concert plans.
If you’ve experienced something like this, you’re not alone. The “maybe” response to invitations is a common
upset in social life. So, what’s going on when people aren’t sure how to refuse an invitation? What leads to this
uncertain, awkward behavior?
Researchers have found that people prefer saying “maybe” to saying “no” because of something called motivated
reasoning (动机性推理), which happens when invitees view information in a biased way to serve their own interests.
In other words, receivers of an invitation make themselves believe that inviters want to hear a “maybe” because it
helps them keep their choices open. Also, people often imagine that saying “no” will ruin the relationship, completely
ignoring the possibility that honesty might be appreciated.
However, there are situations where motivated reasoning fails, and people choose to say “no” directly. When
invitees put themselves in the inviter’s shoes, they realize that a clear “no” is more helpful. Additionally, if the
invitation holds no interest for them at all, they no longer feel the need to leave their options available.
While saying “no” can be uncomfortable, being direct and clear is always the best policy. It may limit your
choices, but it saves the inviter from uncertainty and helps protect the relationship. Next time a hot concert comes
along, your friends will be even more likely to think of you first!
28. Why does the author mention the concert story in Paragraph 1?
A. To encourage quick replies.
B. To reflect common feelings.
C. To introduce a social situation.
D. To explain invitees’ motivation.
29. What does the underlined word “biased” mean in Paragraph 3?
A. Positive
B. Objective
C. One-sided
D. Reasonable
30. What makes invitees prefer a “no” in certain situations?
A. Consideration for the inviter.
B. Fear of ruining the relationship.
C. Uncertainty about the invitation.
D. Wishes to keep their choices open.
31. What is the author’s attitude toward saying “maybe” to an invitation?
A. Supportive.
B. Unclear.
C. Disapproving.
D. Indifferent.
D
Faced with the growing dangers of climate change, scientists are considering a new plan: moving endangered
animals to new habitats far from their old homes. This method, called assisted migration (辅助迁徙), is designed to
protect these animals from rising temperatures and habitat loss.
A recent example is the relocation of the Sooty storm-petrel, a seabird that usually lives on low-lying islands in
Hawaii and Japan. Its main nesting (筑巢的) area, Tern Island, is only 1.8 meters high and is being worn away by the
sea. Therefore, about 40 young birds have been taken 800 kilometers away to Oahu. The biologist Eric Vander Werf
notes that climate change is making such actions increasingly necessary. It is hoped that these birds can return to their
original living places if the environment improves.
This new way of protecting animals is gaining wider acceptance. There are plans to update the Endangered
Species Act, making it easier to move the most threatened species to new places. Because of this, officials and
scientists have identified some animals and plants that might be moved, including Florida’s Key deer, Karner blue
butterfly, as well as some desert plants and lizards.
However, not everyone supports this approach. Some lawmakers argue that introducing new species into different
ecosystems (生态系统) can create new risks, such as threatening native species or damaging the local environment.
The biologist Jason McLachlan points out that this is a major change in our means of saving species. He also
believes that as global warming forces animals to move at an alarming rate, the traditional idea of what is regarded
as a native species is not as clear as it once was. In the past, climate changes happened so slowly over thousands of
years that plants and animals could fully adapt to the new environment, but today such changes are happening much
too quickly for most ecosystems.
32. Why were the Sooty storm-petrels moved to Oahu?
A. To protect native species.
B. To follow wildlife laws.
C. To escape rising sea levels.
D. To return to original habitat.
33. What can we know about Florida’s Key deer?
A. They are at great risk.
B. They are under good protection.
C. They have been officially moved.
D. They have been settled in new places.
34. What can we infer from Jason McLachlan’s words?
A. Animals fail to move fast enough.
B. People value native species highly.
C. Assisted migration will be well accepted.
D. The definition of native species needs reconsidering.
35. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To discuss the risks of relocation.
B. To describe dangers to wild animals.
C. To call for immediate climate action.
D. To introduce a new protection method.
第二节 (共5 小题；每小题2.5 分，满分12.5 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选
项。
How Do You Motivate (激励) Seniors to Use Technology?
Motivating your elderly loved ones to welcome technology with open arms isn’t easy. Before you give up on
them, remember that it’s not about forcing them. ____36____ Here are some suggestions for how to approach with
patience and a focus on the benefits.
____37____ Instead of just telling them to follow the times, we need to show how tech makes their life better.
Will it help them connect with family? Access important information? Take up a hobby? Make their lives easier? It’s
important to focus on practical benefits, not cold features.
Find their sweet spot. Not every senior wants to be an online influencer. ____38____ If a grandpa loves
reading, teach him to use e-reading apps; if a grandma likes chatting, introduce her to simple social software. This
kind of personalized guidance can make them feel that tech is close to their life and easy to master.
Celebrate small wins. Did grandma finally send her first text message? Did grandpa figure out how to turn on the
air conditioner on his smart home device? Make a big deal out of it! ____39____
Be patient. Seniors may need repeated explanations. Use simple words and even a little humor. ____40____
Remember, it might take many tries before they feel confident. Your calm support makes all the difference.
With these gentle ways, seniors will gradually open their hearts to technology and enjoy a more convenient life
with it.
A. Start with the “why”.
B. Keep instructions simple.
C. It’s never late for the elderly to learn new things.
D. They can make the learning process much more relaxed.
E. It’s about showing them how tech can improve their lives.
F. You’d better offer your tech suggestions based on their interests and needs.
G. Every small progress they make deserves sincere praise and recognition from you.
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30 分)
第一节 (共15 小题；每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
For a long time, I felt like the least interesting person on Earth. Whenever I tried to join others, they looked at
me ____41____, whispered to each other, and behaved as if I didn’t fit in. So I chose ____42____, even though I
had so much to say.
I was told that I had autism (自闭症) at four, and I truly ____43____ what it meant at six after reading the
book, Understanding Sam. I knew I wasn’t broken — just ____44____. Toward the end of my freshman year,
something inside me ____45____. I didn’t know what exactly. I guessed I’d reached my ____46____. I decided I
wasn’t going to stay quiet anymore.
I joined the media club and discovered the world of podcasting (播客), which ____47____ me to start my own
podcast, “Autism Rocks and Rolls”. As I worked on it, a sense of self-worth and confidence began to ____48____.
At first, I thought it was ____49____ a way to use my voice, but soon I realized I was also speaking up for others,
especially those who were ____50____ by autism.
I’ve interviewed many famous people, ____51____ a TEDx Talk, and connected with listeners worldwide.
____52____, the best part isn’t the guest list. It’s knowing that what I’m doing is opening people’s ____53____ and
minds to a population that too often is quiet.
To anyone who feels ignored, I want you to know this: if you’ve gone ____54____ for too long, perhaps it’s
time to find your own voice. Keep ____55____, and someone will hear you.
41. A. curiously
B. excitedly
C. awkwardly
D. strangely
42. A. peace
B. silence
C. patience
D. loneliness
43. A. understood
B. guessed
C. wondered
D. accepted
44. A. perfect
B. normal
C. different
D. sick
45. A. froze
B. changed
C. broke
D. moved
46. A. end
B. target
C. limit
D. destination
47. A. inspired
B. persuaded
C. taught
D. forced
48. A. return
B. grow
C. rebuild
D. recover
49. A. originally
B. gradually
C. actually
D. simply
50. A. held back
B. made out
C. swept away
D. turned down
51. A. attended
B. played
C. delivered
D. debated
52. A. Instead
B. Moreover
C. Therefore
D. However
53. A. arms
B. ears
C. hands
D. mouths
54. A. misunderstood
B. mistreated
C. unheard
D. unknown
55. A. going
B. fighting
C. practicing
D. speaking
非选择题部分
第二节 (共10 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Spring Festival was added to the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH, 非
遗) on December 4, 2024. This means the world recognises China’s efforts____56____ (protect) its important
traditional treasures.
China now has about 870,000 pieces of ICH, with 44 of them ____57____ (list) by UNESCO, more than any
other country. Some examples include the 24 Solar Terms, Peking Opera, and the Mazu belief.
The news is a reminder of China’s rich cultural diversity, which shows that China focuses on protecting and
promoting ____58____ (it) many different cultural practices. The Spring Festival is not just one tradition, but a
cultural event ____59____ includes many different local ____60____ (custom) and celebrations.
“The Spring Festival is rich in content and includes various intangible cultural heritage forms,” said Zheng
Changling, ____61____ researcher at the Chinese National Academy of Arts. During the festival, people celebrate
by doing things like putting up New Year paintings, making paper-cuts, ____62____ (perform) dragon and lion
dances, and enjoying opera performances. All of these traditions make up the cultural ____63____ (rich) of the
Spring Festival.
As the Spring Festival ____64____ (celebrate) internationally, these related ICH forms will also reach other
parts of the world. Besides the heritage practices themselves, the deeper cultural values and meanings behind them
will also become known ____65____ people of different cultural backgrounds.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40 分)
第一节 (满分15 分)
66. 假设你是李华，你最近创建了一个名为“Culture of Wenzhou”的视频账号 (video account) ，旨在介绍
和传播温州文化。你的英国朋友Eric 对此非常感兴趣，来信询问相关信息。请你给他回信，内容包括：
(1) 素材内容；
(2) 选材理由。
注意：1. 词数80 字左右；
2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Eric,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25 分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
A “Hearty” Welcome
In American schools, Valentine’s Day is a time when children exchange valentines with their classmates. These
valentines are cards — often handmade or store-bought — and kids sometimes include small treats like candy hearts
or erasers inside. Usually, everyone gives a Valentine to every classmate, so no one is left out. The cards are placed
in envelopes and put on each other’s desks, which is why the desks end up covered with them.
Jasper counted his valentines one more time as he put a robot-shaped eraser into each envelope. “Twenty, twenty-
one, twenty-two.”
“Do you have one for everyone in your class?” Mom asked.
“Yep! And one for Ms. Robins,” Jasper said. “I’m ready for the party tomorrow!”
When Jasper got to school the next day, he saw a new girl named Eva standing shyly by Ms. Robins. “Who can
show her around?” asked Ms. Robins. Jasper raised his hand — he liked helping new kids feel welcome.
Then Jasper realized he didn’t have a Valentine for Eva. No one else would have one either. He pictured her desk
empty while others were covered with Valentine cards. His heart sank.
At break, he showed Eva around but didn’t mention the party. At lunch, he introduced her to some kids. While
waiting in line, Jasper noticed the heart-shaped waffle (华夫饼) on his plate — a reminder that Valentine’s Day was
all about hearts, cards, and treats. He suddenly remembered that kids often included small gifts like candy or erasers
inside their Valentine envelopes. Eva would have none, he thought anxiously.
Suddenly an idea came to him. He whispered it to others, and soon everyone was nodding.
After lunch, Jasper told Ms. Robins the plan. She smiled. “Let’s go for it.”
During math, Jasper made sure Eva sat with her back to the room so she wouldn’t see the kids passing around a
big paper heart Ms. Robins had made. Later, when Jasper got back to his seat, he opened his desk. He found the paper
heart with “To Eva” in the middle and all his classmates’ names around it. He added his own name and quickly closed
the desk.
Soon it was party time. They played games, ate heart-shaped cookies, and finally passed out their valentines.
The room buzzed with happy chatter.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为120 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
Jasper saw the sad look on Eva’s face as she glanced at all the other kids’ desks overflowing with envelopes.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________________________________________
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