2025 年高考第一次模拟考试（新高考八省）01
英语
（考试时间：120 分钟 试卷满分：150 分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮
擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共5 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分7.5 分）
听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三
个选项中选
出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．How might the man perform in the writing contest?
A．He didn’t do well in the contest.
B．He only paid attention to spelling.
C．He did a good job in the contest.
2．What is the purpose of the woman’s call?
A．To ask about a bill.
B．To pay the gas bill.
C．To open a new account.
3．What happens to Sarah?
A．She eats too much.
B．She has a toothache.
C．She needs an operation.
4．What did Sarah emphasize just now?
A．Teamwork.
B．Responsibility.
C．Creative thinking.
5．What’s the man’s dream?
A．Doing business with the woman.
B．Opening a coffee shop of his own.
C．Saving as much money as possible.
第二节（共15 小题;每小题1．5 分，满分22．5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5 秒钟的作
答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6 至7 题。
6．What does Lily ask John to do?
A．Fix the air conditioner.
B．Open the door.
C．Close the window.
7．Who will Lily call first?
A．Her sister.
B．A repairman.
C．H er mom.
听第7 段材料，回答第 8 至10 题。
8．What is James busy with?
A．Working on his task.
B．Booking a plane ticket.
C．Making a holiday plan.
9．Which country will James start his journey?
A．In Spain.
B．In France.
C．In Germany.
10．What does the woman think of James' journey?
A．It's time-consuming.
B．It's worthwhile.
C．It's tiring.
听第8 段材料，回答第11 至13 题。
11．What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A．Food history.
B．Cooking equipment.
C．Restaurant reservations.
12．What surprises the woman?
A．That noodles were created by European traders.
B．That pancakes are likely from the Middle East.
C．That pasta has its origin in China.
13．How did the man mainly learn about the topic?
A．From his travels.
B．From his job.
C．From his family.
听第9 段材料，回答第14 至17 题。
14．What do the speakers agree on heroes?
A．They are like film characters.
B．They achieve great success.
C．They can be common people.
15．Why does Hank think of his grandfather as his hero?
A．He is devoted to his career.
B．He motivates Hank to be better.
C．He tries his best to help others.
16．How does Anna find storybooks without heroes?
A．Uninteresting.
B．Acceptable.
C．Realistic.
17．What does Hank mean in the end?
A．It’s great to read more. B．Great writers do count.
C．He dislikes storybooks.
听第10 段材料，回答第18 至20 题。
18．What does Alice do in France?
A．Shooting a film.
B．Learning arts.
C．Visiting friends.
19．How is Gautier’s house?
A．It has glass walls.
B．It is well equipped.
C．It has a long history.
20．Why does Alice made the speech?
A．To recommend the house.
B．To share her experience.
C．To introduce two artists.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50 分)
第一节 (共15 小题;每小题2.5 分，满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Wildlife Conservation Volunteering
Wildlife conservation volunteering plays a vital role in protecting endangered species like elephants from
extinction due to habitat loss. Opportunities at rescue centers or reserves involve caring for injured wildlife,
monitoring species for research, and anti-poaching (反偷猎) efforts.
Join us and you can make a difference and help preserve biodiversity!
● Best Places to Volunteer
Africa
If you want to experience African wildlife from up close, look at South Africa, Kenya, or Namibia for
volunteer projects. Not only do they offer a great amount of wildlife on land, but some of them are also home to
many sea creatures.The best examples are South Africa, Tanzania, or Mozambique.
Latin America
If you are interested in volunteering with primates (灵长类动物) in their jungle habitats, look no further than
Central and South America. Peru, Brazil and Ecuador all share parts of the Amazon rainforest. Costa Rica has its fair
share of jungles too and is also the nesting site (筑巢地) for four of the seven sea turtle species, making it a great
destination for wildlife conservation volunteers.
● Who Can Volunteer?
As long as you are willing to learn and treat the wild creatures with the necessary respect and caution, you are
more than welcome to volunteer.It doesn't matter if you have any related working experience before.
You need to speak at least basic English, the main language spoken at most projects. Some projects in Latin
America will ask you to speak basic Spanish.
Besides, volunteer projects working with wild and more dangerous animals accept volunteers aged 18 but
there is no age limit upwards — as long as you are physically fit and ready for a challenge, you are the perfect
candidate to volunteer. However, there are also a lot of animal reserves that work with less dangerous species
accepting volunteers under 18 years old.
21．What is the aim of wildlife conservation volunteering?
A．To stop endangered wildlife from dying out.
B．To restore various wildlife habitats worldwide.
C．To conduct scientific research on injured wildlife.
D．To change biodiversity in volunteering destinations.
22．Which is the ideal place to volunteer with animals both on land and in the sea?
A．Peru.
B．Kenya.
C．Ecuador
D．South Africa.
23．Which of the following is a requirement for all volunteers?
A．The adult age requirement.
B．Good physical condition.
C．Relevant working experience.
D．Basic Spanish language skills.
B
I often wake up to my alarm after a short night and step out of bed to a day I’ve fought through countless
times. I rush my morning routine and run to my car. My radio switches to my favorite song, but I have to listen to an
audible (可听的) book for an assignment due tomorrow.
When I get to school, I start with Spanish, my hardest class. Despite being around all year, I have no clue
what’s going on. I then walk to my English class, in which I was stuck in the language rules. The assignments take
much energy that my perfectionist nature is unable to take on in school, so I save them for later, most probably late
at night.
This is my reality as a student with dyslexia, a learning disorder in reading and spelling: assignments that take
three times as long as they’re meant to, late nights and early mornings to even slightly keep up with my classes.
I was told that Advanced Placement U. S. History would be my hardest class. But here, I am in my element.
Despite being three assignments behind, I’m actively engaged. Yes, my passion for history heightens my focus, but
my teacher’s willingness to work with me is what allows me to fly high.
Teachers need to offer alternative structures that make learning more accessible. I’ve had teachers who teach
lecture-based classes where students are expected to take notes and listen. As a student with dyslexia, this doesn’t
work. A fix for that is as simple as providing alternative resources: a slide show students can go back to after class,
or perhaps even an activity that further plays with the concepts.
Now, many schools are shifting to approaches that meet the needs of all kids. However, advocacy work can
still be done to support students with dyslexia. If school systems are willing to provide support and education by
creating an accessible class structure from the start, students won’t be stuck into academic tracks that don’t push
them to their full potential.
24．Why does the author have to do his homework late at night?
A．He is assigned extra homework.
B．He fails to manage his spare time.
C．He needs time to do it well enough.
D．He dislikes tasks related to languages.
25．What does the underlined part “in my element” in paragraph 4 mean?
A．Burning the midnight oil.
B．Biting off more than I can chew.
C．Feeling like a fish in water.
D．Having butterflies in my stomach.
26．What does the author think of lecture-based classes?
A．Satisfying.
B．Inspiring.
C．Rewarding.
D．Demanding.
27．What does the author advise schools to do for students?
A．Offer classes with alternatives.
B．Ask educational experts to give lectures.
C．Advocate out-of-class activities.
D．Get teachers trained in special education.
C
E-waste is the term to describe things like air conditioners, televisions, and personal electronic devices such as cell
phones and laptops when they are thrown away. These devices often contain dangerous or harmful materials that can
harm human health or the environment if they’re not disposed of properly. Besides those potential harms, when
appliances like washing machines and high-performance computers wind up in the trash, the valuable metals inside
the devices are also wasted—taken out of the supply chain instead of being recycled. Depending on the adoption rate
of generative AI, the technology could add 1.2 million to 5 million metric tons of e-waste in total by 2030, according
to the study, published today in Nature Computational Science.
“This increase would exacerbate the existing e-waste problem,”says Asaf Tzachor, a researcher at Reichman
University in Israel and a co-author of the study, via email.The primary contributor to e-waste from generative AI is
high-performance computing hardware that’s used in data centers and server farms, including servers, GPUs, CPUs,
memory modules, and storage devices. That equipment, like other e-waste, contains valuable metals like copper,
gold, silver, aluminum, and rare earth elements, as well as dangerous materials such as lead, and mercury, Tzachor
says.
One reason that AI companies generate so much waste is how quickly hardware technology is advancing.
Computing devices typically have lifespans of two to five years, and they’re replaced frequently with the most up-to-
date versions.
While the e-waste problem goes far beyond AI, the rapidly growing technology represents an opportunity to take
stock of how we deal with e-waste and lay the groundwork to address it. The good news is that there are strategies
that can help reduce expected waste. Expanding the lifespan of technologies by using equipment for longer is one of
the most significant ways to cut down on e-waste, Tzachor says. Refurbishing and reusing components can also play
a significant role, as can designing hardware in ways that makes it easier to recycle and upgrade. Implementing these
strategies could reduce e-waste generation by up to 86% in a best-case scenario, the study projected.
28. What is e-waste mainly composed of?
A. personal electronic devices
B. Air conditioners and televisions.
B. Valuable metals and rare elements.
C. Harmful materials and valuable metals.
29. Why do AI companies generate so much e-waste?
A. Because they produce a lot of hardware.
B. Because they replace hardware frequently.
C. Because they use high-performance computing hardware.
D. Because they don't know how to recycle e-waste.
30. What is one of the important strategies to reduce e-waste according to the text?
A. Shortening the lifespan of technologies.
B. Using equipment for a longer time.
C. Ignoring the valuable metals in e-waste.
D. Disposing of all e-waste as soon as possible.
31. What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Strategies to Reduce E-waste
B. The Definition and Harms of E-waste
C. The Environmental Impact of Generative AI
D. The Impact of Generative AI on E-waste and Solutions
D
Anyone who has left that spark of joy when a favourite song comes on the radio at just the right moment — or
wept along with a singer who is expressing heartache — will understand the emotional resonance ( 共鸣) of music.
But now, a growing body of scientific evidence is actually demonstrating that music can be medicine, too.
In a review of 400 research papers looking into the neurochemistry of music, Daniel Levitin, a psychologist
and neuroscientist in Montreal, found that playing and listening to music had clear mental and physical health
benefits.
One 2007 study from a team of Spanish researchers found that listening to music before surgery had the same
effect in reducing pre-operative anxiety as taking diazepam ( 安定) — an important finding, as anxiety before a
major surgery can affect post-operative pain and recovery time. Another Spanish study, conducted in 2018, found
that patients participating in a music-therapy ( 疗法) programme experienced significant decreases in tiredness,
anxiety and breathing difficulties, as well as an increase in feelings of well-being.
The Centre for Music and Medicine in Baltimor is taking music into the “precision medicine” ( 精准医疗)
field. The Center is the brainchild of Dr Alexander Pantelyat, who specialises in movement disorders like
Parkinson’s. Applying this kind of treatment to movement disorders is relatively new; previously, it was mainly the
field of cancer therapies. Pantelyat explains, “Amazingly there is an understanding in the field of music medicine
that there can be tailored interventions using music that a person actually likes, that speaks to them culturally,
personally or autobiographically.”
Kerry Devlin, the Centre’s senior music therapist, says there can be folks experiencing intensive symptoms,
like a decline in their ability to verbally communicate. Music, she notes, can sometimes help such patients find ways
to respond again. “I’ve had the honour of making music with people and all of a sudden they’re coming up with new
words. It turns into this beautiful unexpected moment. It’s a powerful thing to witness someone find themselves
again for a moment, and a song is the vehicle for that shift.”
32．What can be learnt about music from paragraph 1?
A．It merely brings happiness to people.
B．It can indeed serve as a form of therapy.
C．It is mainly used for entertainment purposes.
D．Its emotional resonance isn’t supported scientifically.
33．How does listening to music affect patients according to researchers?
A．They can soon recover as well as before.
B．They don’t need to take medicine before an operation.
C．They feel less energetic, anxious and breathless.
D．They have their worry greatly reduced before an operation.
34．What is special about music therapy according to Pantelyat?
A．It is a brand new therapy method.
B．It can be flexibly personalized.
C．It applies to movement disorders all along.
D．It plays a main role in cancer treatment.
35．What can be inferred from Kerry Devlin’s words?
A．Everyone can benefit from music.
B．The music moment is powerful.
C．Music may help improve the weakened speech.
D．Songs can guarantee the speech recovery.
第二节 (共5 小题;每小题2.5 分，满分12.5 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Olympic medals are among the most respected honors in the sporting world, symbolizing not only athletic
victory, but also the rich history, fine craftsmanship, and longstanding traditions of the Games. 36 Are
they made entirely of gold, silver, and bronze? And what makes the Paris 2024 Olympic medals special?
Originally, Olympic winners in 776 BCE were honored with olive wreaths (橄榄花环) rather than medals.
The concept of medals as we know them today first emerged at the 1896 Athens Games. However, solid gold medals
were no longer awarded after 1912. 37 As a result, the International Olympic Committee later updated the
regulations regarding medal composition and design.
Modern gold medals are primarily composed of 92.5% silver with a six-gram gold plating for appearance.
38 They contain at least 92.5% pure silver, and bronze medals consist of 95% copper and 5% zinc ( 锌). This
mixture ensures the medals’ longevity and makes them cheaper. An Olympic gold medal may be worth over £500,
but its value to athletes goes beyond its financial worth.
39 For instance, the 2012 London Olympics medals featured the River Thames and London skyline.
Rio 2016 focused on sustainability by using leftover mirrors and X-ray plates. Tokyo 2020 medals, made from
recycled electronics, emphasized technological innovation.
For the Paris 2024 Olympics, the medals are particularly distinctive. Each features a hexagon (六边形) with
the Paris 2024 logo on one side and Nike, the Greek goddess of victory, in front of the Eiffel Tower on the other.
40 As Thierry Reboul, creative director of Paris 2024, stated, “These medals offer athletes a physical piece of
Paris to take home.”
A．Pure gold is soft and easily damaged.
B．When were these medals first introduced?
C．Who is responsible for designing the medals?
D．Silver medals, by contrast, live up to their names.
E．With these symbols, they honor the history of the Olympics.
F．Unique to this year, the medals use metal from the Eiffel Tower.
G．The design of medals reflects the host city’s distinct style and values.
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30 分)
第一节 (共15 小题;每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Rehan Staton, a 24-year-old former cleaner, was admitted into Harvard Law School. Staton was raised by a
single father who worked hard to 41 him and his brother. Growing up was tough and he used to 42
in school. One teacher even suggested he 43 to a special education class. But under the 44 of a tutor,
he ended up making the 45 roll.
In high school, he used to be an athlete, 46 on martial arts and boxing. However, an injury ruined the
47 of him turning professional in sports, and he got 48 by every college he had applied to. Instead of
pursuing higher education, Staton started working at Bates Trucking & Trash Removal to support his family.
There, his co-workers 49 his spirits. Motivated by them, he 50 in Bowie State University in 2014,
and in 2016, he 51 to the University of Maryland. Then, he took the Law School Admission Test (LSAT) and
applied to nine schools.
When reading the law school 52 emails, Staton and his friends were in shock and excitement. 53
, Staton chose to attend Harvard Law School — and he’ll never forget all the 54 people who helped him get
there.
“Throughout this time, people kind of ask me, ‘How did you do it?’ It’s more so how could I not do it when
everyone is breaking their 55 for me, and pushing for me to win,” he said.
41．A．stand by
B．object to
C．provide for
D．call on
42．A．entertain
B．compete
C．mature
D．struggle
43．A．listen
B．switch
C．yield
D．refer
44．A．burden
B．control
C．protection
D．guidance
45．A．honor
B．pay
C．class
D．guest
46．A．deciding
B．taking
C．focusing
D．depending
47．A．luck
B．interest
C．fantasy
D．chance
48．A．denied
B．limited
C．marked
D．rated
49．A．woke
B．lifted
C．brought
D．kept
50．A．enrolled
B．settled
C．trusted
D．lectured
51．A．stuck
B．attended
C．transferred
D．belonged
52．A．charity
B．acceptance
C．promotion
D．inquiry
53．A．Gradually
B．Incredibly
C．Eventually
D．Literally
54．A．optimistic
B．supportive
C．thoughtful
D．pleasant
55．A．backs
B．legs
C．words
D．routines
第二节 (共10 小题;每小题1.5 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
“Experience China: Dunhuang Culture Enters New Zealand” exhibition kicked off in New Zealand's largest
city Auckland on Monday. The exhibition 56 (bring) by the Gansu Provincial Information Office and the
Dunhuang Academy, with the ai m of vividly showcasing the rich cultural heritage of China.
The exhibition featured a systemic selection of Dunhuang murals, colored sculptures, and cave models. It also
57 (digital) restored Cave 285 of the Mogao Grottoes. These efforts allowed the audience to bury 58
(they) in the historical and cultural essence of the Dunhuang Grottoes.
Additionally, performers from the Gansu Performing Arts Group charmed (吸引) the audience with traditional
Dunhuang music and dance, offering 59 unforgettable audio- visual experience. It aimed to enhance cultural
exchanges 60 China and New Zealand while promoting people- to- people exchanges by displaying the
unique charm of Dunhuang Grottoes art.
According to the organizers, Dunhuang culture is an essential part of the 61 (diverse) of world culture.
Civilizations have become 62 (rich) and more colorful with exchanges and mutual learning. They hoped that
this exhibition can contribute to 63 (promote) the people- to- people links in the two countries, facilitating
healthy and stable development of bilateral (双边的) relations.
“This exhibition is really significant, 64 brings a rare opportunity for New Zealanders 65
(engage) with one of the most important cultural and religious sites in the world and facilitates people-to-people
exchanges, ” said New Zealand parliament member Jenny Salesa.
第三部分 写作(共两节，满分40 分)
第一节 (满分15 分)
假定你是李华，在口语课上，外教Ale 组织同学们讨论“内向的学生(Introverts)和外向的学生(Extroverts)谁
会有更好的学业表现?”。请你代表小组发言，内容包括：
1. 你的观点
2. 支持观点的理由。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80 左右；
In our opinion,
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第二节 (满分25 分)
阅读下面材料, 根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段, 使之构成一篇完整的短文。
When Devon’s sister, Lil, went off to college, Devon’s stomach felt all twisty. Then Mom said that Kapil, a
high-school student from India, would be staying in their house and living in Lil’s room, for they were the host
family. The piece of news made Devon’s stomach feel worse, as he missed his sister so much. “What if I can’t
understand him?” Devon asked. “He speaks English well,” Mom said.
On Kapil’s first day, he exchanged some small talk with Devon before disappearing into his new room. Lil’s
room, Devon reminded himself. As days went on, Kapil started spending more time in the rest of the house. He was
in the kitchen a lot, whose cooking always filled the air with steam and spice that made Devon’s eyes water. “Smells
wonderful!” Mom exclaimed. When Lil called a few days later, Devon told her about Kapil’s cooking. “Lucky! I
love Indian food!” Lil said. “But it seems too spicy forme,” replied Devon.
One day, Mom had to work late. “Kapil will stay with you until I get home,” she explained. Devon’s stomach
twisted. Lil had always stayed with him when Mom had to work late.
When Devon got home from school, Kapil greeted him at the door. “Would you like a snack?” Kapil asked.
Devon shrugged. Lil and he used to cook together after school, which they called “making messes.” Kapil opened
the refrigerator. “How about a yogurt?” “I had one at breakfast,” responded Devon in a cold voice. Kapil opened a
cupboard and smiled. “Wait here.” He returned with a package. “I’ll cook an Indian snack,” he announced. Kapil
pulled out around, thin cracker the size of a small Frisbee, poured oil into a pan and fried the cracker. Then the
kitchen was filled with spicy smells. After a while, Kapil handed Devon a plate with the sizzling pancake on it.
“Papadum (印度薄饼),” he said. “Made from bean flour.”
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Devon’s stomach twisted again.
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Looking at the empty plate, Devon said to Kapil, “Let’s make messes!”
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