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2024 年高考英语二轮复习测试卷
（全国甲乙卷）
（考试版）
注意事项: 1. 答题前, 考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚, 将条形码准确粘贴在考生信息条形码粘
贴区。
2. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂; 非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写, 字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3. 请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效; 在草稿纸、试卷上
答题无效。
4. 作图可先使用铅笔画出, 确定后必须用黑色字迹的签字笔描黑。
5. 保持卡面清洁, 不要折叠, 不要弄破、弄皱, 不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段
对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．What time is it now?
A．About 5: 20 pm. B．About 5: 40 pm. C．About 6: 00 pm.
2．What are the speakers talking about?
A．The course to attend. B．The film to watch. C．The language to learn.
3．What will the man do tonight?
A．Attend a meeting. B．Go to a club. C．Stay at home.
4．Where are the speakers?
A．In a store. B．In a restaurant. C．In a bank.
5．Why did the man leave his previous job?
A．To find a new job. B．To become famous. C．To study further.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话或独白后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听
完每段对话后，你将时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的做答时间。每段
对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。6．What does the woman probably do?
A．A doctor. B．A professor. C．An assistant
7．When will the man go to see the doctor?
A．On Wednesday. B．On Friday. C．On Thursday.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What is the conversation mainly about?
A．A building, BA designer. C． A picture.
9．Which subject does the woman like best?
A．History. B．Music. C．Math.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10．How did Andy feel when he first arrived at the classroom?
A．Excited and pleased, B．Anxious and afraid. C．Embarrassed and annoyed.
11．What can we know about Mr Perry?
A．He is strict. B．He is energetic. C．He is funny.
12．Why did the bell ring at 12: 00?
A．To tell students class is over. B．To tell students to have lunch. C．To
remind students to attend class.
听第8段材料，回答第13至16题。
13．What does the man think of Lucy’s taking flying lessons?
A．Impractical. B．Surprising. C．Interesting.
14．What does Lucy work as?
A．A nurse. B．A pilot. C．A doctor.
15．What does the man advise the woman to do?
A．Teach in a college. B．Start her own restaurant. C．Teach an Italian cooking class.
16．What is the relationship between the speakers?
A．Brother and sister. B．Husband and wife. C．Teacher and student.
听第8段材料，回答第17至20题。
17．Where does. the speaker come from?
A．America. B．Australia. C．England
18．What do English people think of Americans?
A．Friends. B．Quiet. C．Humorous.19．What did the speaker like to do in the afternoon in England?
A．Play with his friends. B．Watch comedy shows. C．Have a cup of tea.
20．What did the speaker find amazing in England?
A．The TV programs. B．The old buildings. C．The tea shops.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2分, 满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here’re some of the excellent inventions in 2023. Which one do you like most?
Whiter Paint
The paint on a white building reflects 80 to 90% of the sunlight that strikes it. The rest of the light warms the
surrounding area, raising air-conditioning bills. But the Whiter Paint is made of chemicals that better reflect UV
rays. It reflects up to 98% of the sunlight, which could reduce AC use by 40%. “The heat is reflected into deep
space,” says Xiulin Ruan, who led the Purdue University team that created the paint.
Duolingo app
Now you can take music lessons on a smartphone, using this app, which uses an on-screen piano to teach
basics such as harmony and beat. You learn by interacting with more than 200 popular pieces of music. Just match
sounds to notes and play along. “You don’t need natural talent to learn music,” says Karen Chow, who’s a learning
scientist at Duolingo.
Model A
Model A, developed by Alef Aeronautics, is a two-seat all-electric vehicle with a flight range of 110 miles.
And it looks as if it were made to be parked in a garage. In July, 2023, the Federal Aviation Administration gave Ale
f permission to take the vehicle on test flights. The company hopes to deliver the first Model A by 2026.
Moonwalkers
They’re actually battery-powered shoes with wheels. They let you walk normally—just faster and more easily.
Moonwalkers, made by Shift Robotics, use AI to sense when you’re speeding up or slowing down, and adjust
themselves accordingly. With it, you can walk at speeds up to seven miles per hour.
21．What is special about Whiter Paint?
A．It warms our buildings. B．It powers air conditioners.
C．It makes us feel cooler. D．It absorbs more sunlight.
22．Which one is being tested?A．Whiter Paint. B．Duolingo app.
C．Moonwalkers. D．Model A．
23．What do the listed inventions have in common?
A．They are supported by AI technology. B．They can help us live an easier life.
C．They were created by college teams. D．They are favored by the disabled.
B
Boston Marathon runners in recent years may have seen a smiling furry face around the two-mile mark. It’s
Spencer, the therapy (治疗) dog, who became known as an unofficial mascot (吉祥物) for the marathon, He’s
shown up on the sidelines every year since 2015—rain or shine.
One particularly rainy marathon catapulted Spencer’s fame, In 2018, his owner, Richard Powers, decided to
put a bright yellow rain coat on the dog, making him stand out even more than he usually does. Photos of Spencer,
who holds a “Boston Strong” flag in his mouth, went viral, and he became an inspiration to runners and onlookers
alike, During the marathon, some runners stop in their tracks to take selfies with the dog-the line sometimes
growing to 20 runners long.
But in 2020, Spencer was diagnosed with a tumor (肿瘤). His owner was worried, but Spencer is a fighter. He
got the care he needed and survived. In 2021, he was back on the course and it was really kind of a miracle and that
really hit home to a lot of people.
Unfortunately, Spencer caught another tumor—this one cancerous—and Spencer began chemotherapy. Powers
didn’t think his beloved dog would make it out to the marathon of 2022. “Miraculously, he’s still here with us and
an even bigger miracle, he was strong enough to go to the marathon,” he said.
After recovering, Spencer was back to work—not just at the marathon—but as a therapy dog, alongside his
companion, Penny, who is also a golden therapy dog. Powers takes his two therapy dogs around to schools,
hospitals and senior living centers.
“He’s a gift to us and we’re very lucky to have him. He’s too good so we want to share him with as many
people as we possibly can. He does make a difference,” Powers said.
24．Why is Spencer referred to as a mascot for Boston Marathon?
A．He has a smiling furry face. B．He appears at the event annually.
C．He is not recognized officially. D．He works as a therapy dog for runners.
25．What does Spencer bring to runners?
A．Motivation. B．Satisfaction. C．Fantasy. D．Barrier.26．What did Spencer go through in 2020?
A．A failure in the marathon. B．Caring for his owner.C．Fighting against a disease. D．
Going viral.
27．What was Powers’ initial attitude towards Spence’s appearing at the marathon of 2022?
A．Confident, B．Supportive. C．Objective. D．Negative.
C
One of the problems damaging our planet is the number of things we throw away. Rubbish of all kinds is
piling up in landfill and polluting our rivers and oceans. A more recent addition to the list of things we throw away
is e-waste — electronic items that are broken and not recycled. Now solutions are being found to give this stuff a
new life.
A UN report claims the 50 million tonnes of e-waste generated every year will more than double to 110
million tonnes by 2050 and that’s partly because it’s cheaper to replace them than fix them, but also because we
lack the skills to repair them.
However, there’s a growing trend for repair events and clubs which could be part of a solution to the growing
amount of electrical and electronic junk. The BBC visited a Restart Project in London. One of its volunteers,
Francesco Calo, said that “this project allows you to reduce waste, extend the life of objects, and it helps people
who cannot afford to get rid of items that have gone wrong.”
As many electrical items contain valuable metals, another idea is e-waste mining. An experiment at the
University of New South Wales involves extracting (提取) these materials from electronic gadgets (部件). It’s
thought that doing this could be more profitable than traditional mining. With phones typically containing as many
as 60 elements, this could be part of the solution to our appetite for new technology.
These projects make total sense — collections of e-waste for recycling are “not growing or even decreasing”
according to Ruediger Kuehr, a professor of the United Nations University. And in countries where there is no
relevant laws, much of it just gets dumped. However, the European Union, for example, is trying to tackle the
problem by insisting manufacturers have to make appliances longer-lasting and will have to supply spare parts for
machines for up to 10 years.
28．What does the underlined part “this stuff” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A．Our planet B．E-waste C．Recycling system D．Rubbish
29．How does Restart Project in London help with e-waste?
A．By offering high prices to recycle e-waste. B．By training volunteers to promote e-waste.C．By creating long-lasting items to avoid e-waste. D．By fixing electrical items to reduce e-waste.
30．Why is traditional mining mentioned in paragraph 4?
A．To emphasize the value of e-waste mining. B．To suggest a way for people to earn a living.
C．To explain the process of e-waste mining.D．To provide a way of dealing with rubbish.
31．What is the passage mainly about?
A．Why our planet is getting worse. B．What can be done to manage e-waste.
C．Why technology is not a good thing. D．How we can protect the environment.
D
When the discovery of fossilized (化石的) footprints made in what’s now New Mexico was made public in
2021, it was an astonishing moment for archaeology (考古学), seemingly rewriting a chapter of the human story.
Now new research is offering further evidence of their significance.
While they look like they could have been made yesterday, the footprints were pressed into mud 21,000 to
23,000 years ago, according to radiocarbon dating of the seeds of a water plant that were preserved above and
below the fossils. This date dramatically pushed back the timeline of humans’ history in the Americas, the last land
to be settled by prehistoric people. The 61 dated prints, which were discovered in the Tularosa Basin, near the edge
of an ancient lake in White Sands National Park, were made at a time when many scientists think that massive ice
sheets had stopped human passage into North America, indicating that humans arrived in the region even earlier.
However, some archaeologists questioned the age of the footprints established by those initial findings. They
noted that water plants such as Ruppia cirrhosa — the one used in the 2021 study — can acquire carbon atoms from
the water rather than the air, which can result in a misleadingly early date.
In a follow-up study published Thursday in the journal Science, researchers said they have produced two new
lines of evidence to support their initial dates. “Even as the original work was being published, we were speeding
up to test our results with multiple lines of evidence,” said Kathleen Springer, co-lead author on the new Science
paper, in a news release. “We were confident in our original ages, as well as the strong evidence.”
When and how early humans first moved to the Americas has long been debated and remains poorly
understood. Current estimates range from 13,000 years ago to more than 20,000 years ago. However, the earliest
archaeological evidence for the region’s settlement is insufficient and often controversial, making the footprints
especially important.
32．What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?
A．The purpose of the new research B．The method of the datingC．The significance of the footprints. D．The efforts of the scientists
33．Why did some archaeologists question the age of the footprints?
A．It goes against the prior knowledge.
B．The prints seem to be made recently.
C．The previous research method is improper.
D．The then massive ice sheets are misleading.
34．What will the author probably talk about next?
A．The doubt about the age of the footprints.
B．The new evidence of the fossilized footprints.
C．An agreement between the two sides of the debate.
D．Early humans hardship of moving to the Americas.
35．What is the purpose of the text?
A．To explain the process of archaeological study.
B．To report the discovery of fossilized footprints.
C．To introduce a debate on the age of the footprints.
D．To present the progress of the footprint research.
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
When people in your organization come to you to discuss a problem, you give them your best answer and
probably assume you’ve helped them.
3 6 . You’re not being much help if you’re not really listening to them. We’re not talking about the
mere act of listening, but the art of listening, known as active listening. How can you become a more effective
listener? Here are some tips:
Be present. 3 7 . There’re so many things that make you lose focus in the office many of them tech-
related, like instant messaging and email—that you almost can’t help but half listen to anyone who speaks to you,
whether it’s in person or by phone. What you need to do is purposefully practice active listening by bringing
yourself fully into the conversation. 3 8 .
Give the other person your undivided attention. It shows respect and can have a positive impact on your entire
exchange. It also means you’re less likely to misunderstand, or simply miss, what the person is saying to you.
3 9 when a customer or coworker is telling you about a problem you already know how to solve before they’ve
finished speaking. But part of active listening means you need to let them complete their full “download” to youbefore you respond.
Understand nonverbal（非语言） changes. 4 0 , but good listeners will also sense what is not being
said, as well as what is verbalized. Learning how to read physical cues, such as facial expressions, takes practice.
Improving these active listening skills will help you get the message and resolve problems faster.
A．Well, it may not be that simple
B．Listening naturally means hearing
C．Of course, it’s easy to become impatient
D．Wait for an appropriate moment to politely ask a question
E．Be mindful and concentrate on the message, word for word
F．Truly hearing what the speaker has to say requires your full attention
G．Good active listening skills apply when you’re communicating with others
第三部分语言运用(共两节, 满分45分)
第一节(共20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In January 2008, Rachel Lapierre, a full-time nurse and part-time volunteer aid worker, made a life-changing
decision. After an exhausting day at work she 41 a $4 lottery ticket (彩票) at a local store. At that
moment, Rachel made a(n) 4 2 — if she struck it lucky with the lottery, she would 43 her
nursing career. Because humanitarian (人道主义) work was what she had longed to 44 her life to. When
Rachel scratched the ticket, she discovered she had won a big 45 — $675,000.
True to her word, Lapierre spent all her life through her 46 project, Le Book Humanitaire. It began
as a humble 47 of good deeds in a simple notebook, which she used to keep track of what she had done
to 48 those living in the small communities around her. To her, they were just small acts of 49
— buying clothes for newly arrived immigrants, or delivering 50 to lonely seniors. But 51
started spreading, and a Facebook page she created for the project became a(n) 52 way to answer
requests from those in need.
Over the years, Le Book has 53 a remarkable team of 80 volunteers. This nonprofit 54
has become a hope for the community. The notebook itself has since been replaced by dozens more, 55
millions of deeds. In 2022 alone, it 56 nearly 450,000 acts of service, 57 the lives of countless
individuals.
Le Book Humanitaire, born from Rachel’s lottery win, continues to be a source of 58 for thecommunity. “When you do a good deed, it has a butterfly effect,” says Lapierre. “One good deed can 59
10 people. So if we all do a good deed? That can 60 the world.”
41．A．booked B．bought C．noticed D．delivered
42．A．agreement B．choice C．wish D．deal
43．A．quit B．earn C．fund D．improve
44．A．adapt B．ease C．devote D．compare
45．A．prize B．competition C．game D．profit
46．A．team B．research C．nursing D．charity
47．A．comment B．plan C．survey D．record
48．A．pay B．help C．treat D．attract
49．A．encouragementB．bravery C．generosity D．kindness
50．A．orders B．messages C．meals D．speeches
51．A．word B．money C．dream D．career
52．A．valuable B．unusual C．efficient D．positive
53．A．worked with B．developed into C．accounted for D．focused on
54．A．research B．organization C．firm D．hospital
55．A．representing B．imitating C．predicting D．recommending
56．A．designed B．completed C．invested D．introduced
57．A．rescuing B．deciding C．protecting D．touching
58．A．inspiration B．enthusiasm C．relief D．fantasy
59．A．assist B．shape C．affect D．liberate
60．A．explore B．satisfy C．rule D．save
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In some parts of northern China, “dikengyuan” in Mandarin, which means “ground hole courtyards,” is a type
of cave dwellings (“yaodong”) commonly 61 (find) in the Loess Plateau in northern China. Academic
literature mentions they came into 62 (exist) about 7,000 years ago.
The soil of the Loess Plateau, 63 these cave dwellings are built, is an effective substance that can
keep people warm during the winter. More 64 (important), the yellow earth of the Loess is not only soft
and easy 65 (dig) into, but also strong enough that it can hold together even without support.
While the size of the courtyard 66 (vary), the cave dwellings can go up to 12 meters long. After aground hole is dug for the courtyard, the rooms 67 (carve) out from the four walls of the sunken
courtyard.
Some scholars outside China consider the dwellings to be a natural adaptation to the climatic patterns in that
region, with 68 (freeze) and long winters, and extremely burning summer heat.
While these houses have been around for thousands of years, 69 government only listed them as
part of China’s intangible cultural heritage in 2011.
Many of these ancient homes, especially in the Shanzhou district of Sanmenxia City in China’s Henan
province, have been restored and turned 70 tourist attractions.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分35分)
第一节 短文改错 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，
每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
I discovered the joy of playing table tennis when I enter high school. At first, I was hesitant to try the sport, but
after watching a few excited matches, I was attracted. I started practicing with friends and soon joined in a local
club. I spent countless hours perfecting my skills or learning new strategies. My hard work paid back when I won
my first tournament, what inspired me to work harder. Play table tennis became a way for me to forget the pressure
of high school. It also taught us valuable lessons about teamwork and hard works. Though I’ve graduated, I will
always treasure memories of those days.
第二节 书面表达 (满分25分)
假如你是李华，在你校举办的“用英语讲好中国故事”(Chinese Stories Retold in English)活动中，你获得一
等奖。你的英国笔友John发来邮件向你表示祝贺并想了解你讲的故事， 请你给他写一封回信， 内容包括：
1.感谢关注；
2.故事概况；
3.参加活动的感受。
注意: 1. 词数100左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节， 以使行文连贯。Dear John,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
