【灿烂六月·高考金8 卷】
备战2026 年高考英语模拟卷01（新高考II 卷）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮
擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共5 小题；每小题1 分，满分5 分）
听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对
话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1． What does the woman want to do?
A．Make three doors.
B．Make a new kitchen.
C．Make one door wider.
2． Where does the conversation probably happen?
A．At a lake.
B．By the sea.
C．In the classroom.
3． What’s the man’s intention?
A．To plan a travel.
B．To comfort the woman.
C．To change the travel routine.
4． What are the speakers talking about?
A．Sounds of laughing.
B．A new film.
C．A computer game.
5． What does the woman think of her new dress?
A．Suitable.
B．Quite wide.
C．Much shorter.
第二节（共15 小题；每小题1 分，满分15 分）
听下面5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料，回答6~7 小题。
6．Why does Alex make the call?
A．To discuss a new project.
B．To confirm a meeting.
C．To arrange a visit.
7．Where will the speakers meet on Tuesday?
A．At the restaurant.
B．At Sarah’s office.
C．At the coffee shop.
听第7 段材料，回答8~9 小题。
8．What does Sam say about his daughter?
A．She dislikes doing homework.
B．She feels lonely at school.
C．She
overuses her tablet.
9．What is Sam’s attitude towards the school policies?
A．Supportive.
B．Uncertain.
C．Disapproving.
听第8 段材料，回答10~12 小题。
10．How long does the express train take?
A．One hour and a half.
B．One hour and 45 minutes.
C．One hour and 55 minutes.
11．Why does the man book a one-way ticket?
A．A one-way ticket is cheap.
B．The return time is uncertain. C．He needs no
round-trip ticket.
12．How much is saved by booking a second-class ticket?
A．50 dollars.
B．60 dollars.
C．70 dollars.
听第9 段材料，回答13~16 小题。
13．What has the man been up to these days?
A．Looking for a part-time job.
B．Taking up a new hobby. C．Attending
evening classes.
14．What kind of person is the man?
A．Pessimistic.
B．Determined.
C．Patient.
15．What does the man think of the courses he is learning?
A．Challenging.
B．Rewarding.
C．Boring.
16．Why does the man want to learn a foreign language?
A．To get more chances.
B．To make more friends.
C．To further study abroad.
听第10 段材料，回答17~20 小题。
17．What is the speaker probably?
A．A fitness coach.
B．An online broadcaster.
C．A video photographer.
18．How old is the speaker probably?
A．18 years old.
B．36 years old.
C．45 years old.
19．What does the speaker suggest doing?
A．Avoiding blue light one hour before bed.
B．Drinking milk to fight tiredness.
C．Setting an alarm for bedtime.
20．What is the speaker going to do next?
A．Show a set of exercises.
B．Talk about healthy eating.
C．Take questions from the audience.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50 分)
第一节(共15 小题:每小题2.5 分, 满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
4 Colleges With Four-Year On-Campus-Living Policies
Most colleges ask first-year students to live on campus, but some require four-year on-campus living.
Students can live off campus in special cases, such as being married, having children, commuting from home, or
being older.
Dickinson College (PA)
All full-time students must live on its 144-acre campus and buy a meal plan. There are nearly 60 types of
housing, including special housing for students with shared hobbies (like outdoor activities or music) or study
interests. This helps build a strong campus community. Over 110 student clubs and 25 school sports teams make
campus life colorful.
Hamilton College (NY)
Full-time students must live on campus and sign up for a meal plan: First-years stay in rooms with 2-4 people,
while older students get single rooms. Housing choices include mixed-gender buildings, single-sex floors, or gender-
inclusive spaces, plus special interest or quiet areas. Dining ranges from snacks to late-night diners, with traditions
like the yearly HamTrek triathlon.
Middlebury College (VT)
Here, study and campus life mix together; first-year students in the same discussion-based class live in the
same community, and their teachers act as advisers. All full-time students live on campus, though some seniors can
move off campus through a spring draw. A famous tradition is its winter festival, started in 1923—it’s the oldest
student-run festival in the U.S.
Vanderbilt University (TN)
In Nashville, it has 31 residence halls and 18 dining spots. First-years live in 10 houses with live-in teachers,
with year-round activities like game nights. The Commons Cup, a big yearly competition, lets first-years earn points
in campus participation, studies, and sports. Older students can live off campus if housing is full-1,750 were
approved for 2025-2026.
21．Which college has special housing for students with the same hobbles?
A．Dickinson College.
B．Hamilton College.
C．Middlebury College.
D．Vanderbilt University.
22．What do Hamilton College and Middlebury College have in common?
A．Seniors must attend a yearly triathlon.
B．First-year students live with their teachers.
C．Full-time freshmen must live on campus.
D．Seniors can live off campus through a draw.
23．Where is the text probably from?
A．A student travel magazine.
B．A college housing guide.
C．A college textbook.
D．A campus newsletter.
B
In Massachusetts, food waste is a serious issue. When thrown into landfills( 垃圾填埋场), it produces
methane, a harmful greenhouse gas. To tackle this, the state has a rule: Large food businesses must keep food waste
out of the trash. Helping them follow this rule is Heather Billings, a 63-year-old waste reduction consultant.
One cold morning, Ms. Billings visited the Port Tavern, a sports bar in Newburyport. Abbie Hannan, the co-
owner, had invited her to examine how the restaurant dealt with its waste. In the kitchen, Ms. Billings noticed a
simple but common mistake: Food scraps(下脚料) like tomato tops were being thrown into a large trash can. Then,
at the dumpster, she checked for compostable(可用作堆肥的) items.
As a state-hired consultant, Ms. Billings took notes and gave practical suggestions. She recommended using
smaller buckets inside trash bins to collect food scraps, and she connected the restaurant with composting services
and food donation programs. “Our biggest challenge is getting the staff to follow the rules,” Ms. Hannan said. Ms.
Billings responded by showing clear signs that could be posted in the kitchen as reminders.
The state’s regulation applies to places producing over half a ton of waste per week. While businesses that
ignore the rule can be penalized, the authorities rarely step in. Still, many restaurants are trying. Some even donate
extra food to charities, as hunger remains a problem in many communities.
Massachusetts has made more progress than other states with similar laws. Environmental groups hope to go
further, encouraging residents to compost at home. Meanwhile, the law has also helped new composting companies
grow.
For Ms. Billings, this work is more than a job. She sees it as a way to protect the environment. At Port Tavern,
the biggest challenge was that four restaurants shared the only one dumpster. “It’s complicated,” Ms. Hannan
admitted. “Not impossible,” Ms. Billings said with a smile.
24．What does the state rule require large food businesses in Massachusetts to do?
A．Limit the amount of food waste.
B．Record the daily food waste.
C．separate food waste from trash.
D．Donate food scraps to charities.
25．What did Ms. Billings suggest Ms. Hannan do for her staff?
A．Post the relevant instructions.
B．Provide basic training.
C．Replace trash containers.
D．Make stricter rules.
26．What does the underlined word “penalized” in paragraph 4 mean?
A．Revised.
B．Punished.
C．Inspected.
D．Recognized.
27．What can be inferred about the regulation’s impact?
A．It’s rarely followed in practice.
B．It strengthens business cooperation.
C．It helps solve the public health issue.
D．It promotes environmental improvement.
C
As hurtful as it can be for a friend or partner to put us down, it is far worse when we find a critic in our own
head that keeps criticizing and doubting ourselves. To break free from the self-criticism, and achieve inner peace and
self-acceptance, an extremely important step is to understand the three “parts” of us: the inner critic, the inner victim
and the inner observer.
The inner critic sits deeply within our sense of ourselves. That means that it — or the seeds of it — was
placed there at an early age. For example, if our parents called us stupid or worthless as a child, it is understandable
that our child-self would learn to be self-critical and view ourselves with doubt or even shame. Since all humans are
imperfect, the inner critic’s message may make the inner victim “objectively” believe what the inner critic has said
and feel worthless.
On the other hand, the inner observer is a kind of self-awareness. It understands the inner critic’s origin and
motivation and, in all likelihood, would not agree with what the inner critic has said — and might even offer a few
choice words in response. For instance, it might remind the inner victim, “Remember, even if you feel what the critic
has said is true, it does not mean that it is true.” In other words, the inner observer offers a possibility for change by
connecting with the two “parts” to help us achieve self-acceptance and inner peace.
Having recognized the dynamics among the three “parts” of us, we can start to break free from self-criticism.
First, reflect on why the child-self so often feels bad in the upsetting present-day situations. Then, respond to the
child-self’s pain with sympathy and compassion. Once the child-self’s pain is addressed, we are able to question or
even free ourselves from self-criticism. Though it may be a long process from self-criticism to self-acceptance, in the
end, we can find greater inner peace and build a happier relationship with ourselves.
To learn more about how to comfort the child-self, let’s watch this brief video, Healing Your Inner Child,
now.
28．Which statement will the author probably agree with?
A．Self-doubt was born with human beings.B．The inner critic’s message is usually right.
C．Parents’ criticism may have lasting effects.
D．Many adults are too sensitive to criticism.
29．What is the inner observer’s most important function?
A．To find good excuses for the self-child.
B．To provide reliable evidence for the inner critic.
C．To help us become more sympathetic towards others.
D．To challenge our false beliefs and heal us from within.
30．What is paragraph 4 mainly about?
A．The journey to self-acceptance.
B．The various types of self-doubting.
C．The relationship among our three “parts”.
D．The benefits of dealing with self-doubting.
31．Where is the text most probably taken from?
A．A textbook.
B．A psychology lecture.
C．An advertisement.
D．An introduction to a video.
D
Nanoplastics, even tinier than their better-known microplastic cousins, have emerged as a stealthy and
pervasive environmental threat. These minuscule particles — measuring less than 1 micrometer in size — have
infiltrated the most remote corners of the planet. They’ve been detected in the icy cores of the Arctic, embedded in
the soil of ancient rainforests, swirling in the mist of mountain peaks, and even present in the umbilical cord blood of
newborns, hinting at their ability to breach the most fundamental barriers of human biology.
Now, a groundbreaking study published in Environmental Science Advances offers a glimmer of hope in the
fight against these elusive pollutants. Researchers from a multinational team discovered that a specific combination
of ultraviolet (UV) radiation and a natural clay-based filter could potentially reduce nanoplastics in drinking water
by a significant margin. In controlled laboratory tests, exposing water contaminated with nanoplastics to UV light for
15 minutes, followed by filtration through a montmorillonite clay filter, resulted in the removal of at least 75 percent
of certain nanoplastics.
Crucially, the effectiveness of this method hinged on multiple factors. The pH level of the water played a vital
role — alkaline conditions enhanced the binding of nanoplastics to the clay particles, while acidic environments
weakened it. Additionally, the study was limited in scope: it focused only on three prevalent types of nanoplastics —
polyamide, polyvinyl chloride, and polyethylene terephthalate — and did not account for the complex chemical
interactions with other contaminants commonly found in real-world water sources, such as heavy metals and
pesticides.
Still, the findings underscore the urgency of addressing the nanoplastic crisis — a problem that’s growing
more complex by the day. Earlier this year, independent studies revealed that nanoplastic concentrations in bottled
water brands, previously thought to be a safer alternative, were up to 500 times higher than initial estimates. This
suggests that even seemingly pristine water sources are not immune to nanoplastic contamination.
Scientists remain uncertain about the full extent of nanoplastic toxicity, but early research points to alarming
possibilities. These particles, due to their small size, can penetrate cell membranes, potentially disrupting cellular
functions and triggering inflammatory responses. The new study’s authors emphasize that while their method shows
promise, it’s just one piece of the puzzle. “The way we demonstrated the interaction between UV, clay, and
nanoplastics provides a foundation,” says Dr. Elena Vazquez, an environmental chemist at the lead institution of the
study. “But we need to scale up these solutions and integrate them into existing water treatment infrastructures to
truly make a difference.”
32．How does the author introduce the issue of nanoplastics in the first paragraph?
A．By citing an expert’s opinion.
B．By defining the key concept.
C．By listing widespread examples.
D．By presenting statistical data.
33．What is a decisive factor affecting the removal of nanoplastics in the study?
A．The intensity of UV radiation.
B．The pH level of the water.
C．The thickness of the clay filter.
D．The temperature of the water.
34．Why does the author mention bottled water in paragraph 4?
A．To highlight the importance of plastic reduction.
B．To illustrate the severity of the nanoplastic problem.
C．To promote the use of alternative water sources.
D．To emphasize the difficulty of water treatment.
35．What does Dr. Elena Vazquez suggest regarding the study’s findings?
A．Developing new research techniques.
B．Expanding the scope of the current study.
C．Incorporating the method into water treatment systems.
D．Involving more international researchers.
第二节(共5 小题:每小题2. 5 分, 满分12. 5 分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The hot sun on your skin, sweat going into your eyes — anyone who has played a sport in the middle of
summer knows it’s not easy. And some people even think adding heat is a good way to get a better workout — like
in hot yoga or hot Pilates, which are done in rooms as hot as 38 degrees Celsius. 36
The answer isn’t as simple as a yes or no. There may be some benefits of exercising in high temperatures. It is
believed that these works warm the muscles, which can help you avoid injuries. 37 This is because they
make your heart work a bit harder.
But before you turn the heat up, it’s not all good news. For one thing, your body might not be able to work as
hard in high heat as it can in cooler temperatures, meaning your workout won't be as good as you might like.
38 Because the body sweats more, it's easy to get dehydrated (脱水). Sweating also means losing
important salts, so you may feel tightening and discomfort in your muscles or stomach.
39 It is a dangerous state of extreme overheating which happens when your body gets too hot and its
temperature goes over degrees Celsius. This situation of high body temperature, like heatstroke (中暑), can cause
serious damage to different parts of your body, like your brain, heart, liver and kidneys and in extreme cases, even
death.
If you do want to try heated exercise, there are ways to make it safer. Drinking lots of water helps stop you
from getting dehydrated. 40 40 And try to wear light clothes — and take breaks when you need to!
A．But are high-temperature workouts really better?
B．The biggest risk of exercising in heat is heatstroke.
C．But why do people like high-temperature workouts?
D．Heated works may also help you burn more calories.
E．This is why many people prefer to exercise in the cool evening.
F．There are also health risks related to exercising in high temperatures.
G．Sports drinks will replace any of those important salts you lose from sweat too.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30 分)
第一节(共15 小题:每小题1 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Simon Griffiths is the founder of Who Gives A Crap, a company that has 41 the toilet paper
industry.
His journey began with a(n) 42 statistic — a toilet is not 43 to 2. 4 billion people, about
40% of the world! While volunteering in Asia and Africa, Simon 44 organizations doing incredible things
to help people there, but the lack of sustainable funding greatly 45 their work.
Inspired by his experience in developing countries, Simon 46 to sell goods to make a difference.
But what should he sell? One day, Simon walked into the bathroom and a good idea 47 him: he could sell
toilet paper and donate half profits to help fund organizations build toilets. Who Gives A Crap was born.
Too often, people buy products that 48 to their taste but without clever packaging, so his 49
was to create something that 50 quality and aesthetics (美学), so that people would want to put it in their
bathroom.
It was not beyond their 51 that their goods sold well. Their donation to WaterAid Australia has
grown from the initial 2, 00 AUD to 5.85 million AUD, they becoming its largest 52 .
When interviewed, Simon said “I tried various jobs before Who Gives A Crap. But after working in both
corporate and non-profit organizations, I 53 I wanted to combine business with social 54 so I
found the way to use profits from everyday products to do good 55 . ”
41．A．created
B．occupied
C．transformed
D．disturbed
42．A．interesting
B．shocking
C．obvious
D．awesome
43．A．invisible
B．sensitive
C．accessible
D．unique
44．A．announced
B．witnessed
C．imagined
D．suggested
45．A．took up
B．weighed up
C．held back
D．appealed to
46．A．revealed
B．revised
C．resigned
D．resolved
47．A．annoyed
B．struck
C．bothered
D．chose
48．A．subscribe
B．react
C．stick
D．correspond
49．A．intention
B．attitude
C．assumption
D．criterion
50．A．ignored
B．combined
C．evaluated
D．adopted
51．A．expectation
B．description
C．passion
D．occupation
52．A．partner
B．client
C．opponent
D．donor
53．A．blamed
B．denied
C．recognized
D．detected
54．A．impacts
B．careers
C．prospects
D．conflicts
55．A．globally
B．immediately
C．appropriately
D．individually
第二节(共10 小题:每小题1.5 分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Modern eating habits have undergone significant changes in recent decades. They are shaped by technology,
urbanization, and shifting 56 (priority). Studies reveal that over 40% of adults now rely 57 fast
food, which saves time but frequently contains too much salt and sugar, due to 58 (demand) work
schedules. What concerns nutritionists is that younger generations, 59 (influence) by social media trends,
often choose visually appealing meals over nutritious ones. Driven by growing health 60 (aware), many
have adopted organic or plant-based diets, a shift that has boosted the sales of alternative protein products.
Meanwhile, the rise of food delivery apps has transformed how people access meals, making 61 possible
to order high-calorie dishes with a single click — a habit 62 contributes to rising obesity (肥胖) rates.
63 (additional), skipping breakfast remains common among office workers, a behavior that experts link to
reduced productivity and metabolic (代谢的) issues. While some adopt mindful eating, others struggle 64
(balance) convenience and health. Ultimately, how society 65 (address) these challenges will determine
future public health outcomes.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40 分)
第一节(满分15 分)
66．假定你是李华，你在刚刚结束的校英文诗歌创作比赛中荣获一等奖。请给帮助你的外教George 写一封
邮件，内容包括：
1. 告知比赛结果；
2. 回顾他在诗歌创作技巧方面对你的帮助；
3. 表达感谢。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为80 个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
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第二节(满分25 分)
67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Fred was a pioneer in integrating technology into education. As a high school English teacher with a
bachelor’s degree in software engineering, he had spent years developing an AI system that could analyze students’
writings with remarkable accuracy. The essays were scanned (扫描) into the system, which then generated detailed
reports on grammar, vocabulary, and structure. The AI’s feedback (反馈) was so precise that even seasoned teachers
were impressed.
At first, Fred’s students welcomed the efficiency. “This is amazing!” screamed Lily. “I get instant feedback
and can revise my work right away.” The system also freed Fred from hours of boring grading, allowing him to
focus on lesson planning. However, after a few months, the enthusiasm began to decline. One day, during a writing
workshop, Mia raised her hand. “Mr. Fred, the AI tells me my essay is technically perfect, but it feels…lifeless. Like
it’s missing something.” Others nodded in agreement. “It doesn’t understand the emotions in my story,” added
Carlos. “It just points out my spelling mistakes, ignoring my beautiful handwriting.”
Fred dismissed their concerns at first, believing that technical proficiency (熟练) was the foundation of good
writing. But as the complaints continued, he began to doubt. One evening, he reviewed a particularly sincere essay
by Sophie about her grandmother’s passing. The AI had marked it with an 85% score, noting minor grammatical
errors. Yet Fred felt deeply moved as he read the raw emotion in Sophie’s words. The AI had completely missed the
essay’s emotional depth.
That night, Fred sat at his desk, staring at the AI-generated reports. He realized that while the system did well
in mechanics, it lacked the human touch that made writing meaningful. “What’s the point of teaching literature if
we’re reducing it to cold codes?” he thought to himself. Determined to find a solution, he spent weeks researching
flexible ways, integrating AI’s precision with human insight.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150 左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Fred decided to add his own comments to each essay.
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Students started submitting essays with more vivid plots.
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